A+ Answers

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1. Which of the following is the best definition of mediation?
A. The disputing parties meet with a person trained in the art of helping people resolve disputes to everyone’s satisfaction.
B. A social worker retrains persons who have tendencies towards violence so that no further harm is committed.
C. A third party decides the case like a judge would.
D. It’s a form of reintegrative shaming.
2. After police processing, the juvenile offender is typically remanded to the local juvenile court’s _______ division.
A. detention
B. bail
C. pleading
D. intake
3. Advocates of the crime control model consider _______ at any stage, other than perhaps at trial, an unnecessary impediment to the efficient operation of the process.
A. DNA technology
B. the adversarial system
C. victims’ rights
D. legal representation
4. The practice of _______ is based on the idea that youths should be left alone if possible rather than being processed in the criminal justice system.
A. laissez faire
B. “turning the other cheek”
C. radical nonintervention
D. community corrections
5. The first correctional institutions devoted exclusively to youth incarceration were
A. poor houses.
B. training schools.
C. houses of refuge.
D. cottage reformatories.6. Which of the following is not related to trying juveniles in adult criminal court?
A. Petition
B. Waiver
C. Bindover
D. Transfer
7. What is the most frequently used correctional response for youths adjudicated delinquent?
A. Incarceration
B. Parole
C. Waiver
D. Probation
8. In what case did the Supreme Court establish that the hearing on whether to transfer a case to criminal court is a critically important stage in the juvenile justice process that requires certain due process protections?
A. In re Gault
B. Breed v. Jones
C. Kent v. United States
D. In re Winship
9. When can diversion occur?
A. At any stage in the juvenile justice process
B. Only prior to formal processing
C. Only after formal processing
D. Only during the informal stage of juvenile justice processing
10. An important case in extending a variety of due process protections to juveniles in determining delinquency was
A. Miranda v. Arizona.
B. In re Gault.
C. Commonwealth of Pennsylvania v. Fisher.
D. Kent v. United States.
11. When a juvenile court is looking out for the “best interests of the child,” what philosophy is the court applying?
A. Due process
B. Parens patriae
C. Delinquency prevention
D. Waiver
12. _______ were intended to closely parallel family life.
A. Industrial schools
B. Training schoolsC. Cottage reformatories
D. Wilderness camps
13. Participatory justice is a form of
A. deterrence.
B. incapacitation.
C. punitive justice.
D. restorative justice.
14. In 2010, approximately what percentage of juveniles placed in residential facilities committed status
offenses?
A. About 33%
B. More than 50%
C. Less than 5%
D. Between 15% and 20%
15. For which of the following types of blended sentences may a juvenile court impose a juvenile
correctional sanction that remains in force after the offender is beyond the age of the court’s extended jurisdiction, at which point the offender may be transferred to the adult correctional system?
A. Juvenile-contiguous blend
B. Juvenile-inclusive blend
C. Criminal-inclusive blend
D. Juvenile-exclusive blend
16. Proponents of the _______ approach to law enforcement would be most likely to support restricting the
development of a national DNA database.
A. crime control
B. conservative
C. due process
D. JUMP
17. The juvenile court equivalent of sentencing is
A. remand.
B. disposition.
C. waiver.
D. bind-over.
18. In 2009, approximately _______ percent of the total number of juvenile arrestees were age 14 and
younger.
A. 35%
B. 10%
C. 25%
D. 5%
19. What is the most common choice made by police processing juveniles?
A. Radical nonintervention
B. Referring to juvenile court
C. Handling within police departments
D. Referring to adult court
20. To transfer a juvenile offender to the adult courts in many states, the prosecutor must
A. show that the juvenile has had a long record of criminal behavior.
B. provide a birth certificate showing the child is older than 13.
C. demonstrate that the juvenile presents a danger to society.
D. prove beyond all doubt that the offense was committed deliberately by the juvenile.

 
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Read The Case And Answer The Questions

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At the end of chapter 3 of this book (Managing Human Resources. (17th ed) Snell, S., Morris, S., & Bohlander, G. (2016) you will find the following case study (Going to the Dogs)
Read the case and answer the questions.
  1. If you were an HR manager of a company, what pet policy would you set and how would you implement it?
  2. How would you decide the case of Elizabeth Booth, and which laws would you base your decision on? Explain

Style( times, 12, double space, minimum of 1.5 pages without the cover page)

 
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Organizational Behavior Chapter 11 Multiple Choice Questions

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Multiple Choice Quiz
1
Communication:
A) brings knowledge into the organization.
B) distributes knowledge to employees.
C) minimizes the ‘silos of knowledge’ problem that undermines an organization’s potential.
D) improves decision making
E) does of all of the above.
2
The barriers that distort and obscure the sender’s intended message are called:
A) mediums.
B) encoding.
C) MBWA.
D) noise.
E) decoding.
3
Sending an emotionally charged email message is referred to as:
A) emotional contagion.
B) flaming.
C) jargon.
D) emotional outburst.
E) spamming.
4
Which of these is (are) considered problem(s) with email?
A) Email contributes to information overload.
B) Email is an inefficient medium for communicating in ambiguous or complex situations.
C) It is difficult to interpret the emotional meaning behind email messages.
D) Email seems to reduce our politeness and respect for others.
E) All of the these are problems with email.
5
Email tends to:
A) reduce the likelihood of information overload.
B) reduce the risk of sending emotionally charged messages to other people.
C) increase the likelihood that the receiver will correctly interpret the emotional meaning of the sender’s message.
D) transmit messages faster than traditional written media.
E) do all of the above.
6
All of the following are forms of computer-mediated communication, EXCEPT:
A) instant messaging.
B) extrawebs.
C) intranets.
D) podcasting.
E) blogging.
7
The automatic and subconscious tendency to mimic and synchronize our nonverbal behaviours with other people is called:
A) emotional dissonance.
B) the inoculation effect.
C) emotional contagion.
D) empathy.
E) emotional labour.
8
Which of these is the richest communication medium?
A) Video conference
B) Face-to-face
C) Email
D) Weblogs
E) Newsletters
9
Which of these communication channels is the “leanest” in the hierarchy of media richness?
A) Telephone
B) Email
C) Face-to-face
D) Financial statements
E) Instant messaging
10
The communication barrier (noise) caused when the sender and receiver interpret the same word or phrase differently is called:
A) jargon.
B) filtering.
C) perception.
D) ambiguity.
E) information overload.
11
To avoid conveying undesirable emotions in the work setting, sometimes people deliberately use:
A) information overload.
B) ambiguous language.
C) perceptions.
D) filtering.
E) email.
12
A barrier that inhibits the effective exchange of information is:
A) perceptions.
B) filtering.
C) language.
D) information overload.
E) all of the above.
13
A job’s information load can be reduced by:
A) learning to read faster.
B) buffering.
C) scanning documents more efficiently.
D) working longer hours.
E) time management.
14
When assistants screen the person’s messages and forward only those considered essential reading they are:
A) filtering.
B) sorting.
C) buffering.
D) loading.
E) instant messaging.
15
Japanese people place much value on:
A) written communication.
B) verbal communication.
C) silence.
D) displaying emotions.
E) MBWA.
16
To ensure the receiver receives and understands the message, the sender must do all the following, EXCEPT:
A) learn to empathize with the receiver.
B) repeat the message.
C) choose an appropriate time for the conversation.
D) be descriptive rather than evaluative.
E) rely on metaphors to describe complex ideas.
17
Sensing, evaluating, and responding represent:
A) the three main components of active listening.
B) the main sources of filtering in organizational hierarchies.
C) the three ways that people engage in emotional contagion.
D) the main ways that men and women differ in their communication styles.
E) the three stages of flaming.
18
Collaborative variations of blogs in which anyone in a group can write, edit, or remove material from the Web site are:
A) e-zines.
B) podcasts.
C) wikis.
D) instant messages.
E) email.
19
Which of the following is a characteristic of the grapevine?
A) A few people actively transmitting rumours to many others
B) Transmitting information very rapidly
C) Working through informal social networks
D) Distorting information by deleting fine details and exaggerating key points of the story
E) All of the above are grapevine characteristics.
20
The oldest communication channel is:
A) the grapevine.
B) email
C) faxes.
D) written memos
E) none of the above.
21
The grapevine typically transmits information through:
A) newsletters.
B) informal social networks.
C) video conferencing.
D) emotional contagion.
E) buffering.

 
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Case Study. Human Resources.

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Week 4 – HR, Work/Job Design and Employee Motivation: An Historical Perspective

Managing human resources is a challenging and creative facet of a business. It is the department that handles the recruiting, hiring, training, and firing of employees. Because of diligence and detail required in hiring and the sensitivity required in firing, human resource managers have a broad skill set. Similarly, human resources is vital to the overall functioning of the business because without the right staff a firm will not be able to work together and to enhance strengths and downplay weaknesses.

In addition, a good human resource manager can anticipate upcoming needs and changes in the business, hiring in line with the dynamics of the market and organization. Once a good workforce is in place, human resources managers must ensure that employees are properly trained and oriented and that they clearly understand some elements of what the organization expects. Hiring new people is expensive, time consuming, and turbulent; thus, it is imperative that all employees are carefully selected, trained, and motivated so that they will remain committed and loyal to the company. This is not an easy task. Following is an historical overview of some work design theories:

Scientific Management Scientific Management, also called Taylorism, is a theory of management that analyzes and synthesizes workflows. Its main objective is improving economic efficiency, especially labor productivity through the simplification of tasks and division of labor. It was one of the earliest attempts to apply science to the engineering of processes and to management.

Taylorism began in the United States in the 1880s and ’90s within the manufacturing industries. Its peak of influence came in the 1910s; by the 1920s, it was still influential but opposing or complementary ideas/theories were introduced to businesses. Although scientific management as a distinct theory or school of thought was obsolete by the 1930s, most of its themes are still important parts of industrial engineering and management today.

Frederick W. Taylor and Frank and Lillian Gilbreth proposed that money was the sole motivator for workers (the classical theory of motivation). As such, they suggested managers should break down each job into its component tasks (specialization), determine the best way to perform each task, and specify the output to be achieved by a worker performing the task. The three social scientists conducted “time and motion” studies to prove their belief. Taylor also believed that incentives would motivate employees to be more productive. That said, Taylor’s and the Gilbreths’ motivation to provide incentives for employees wasn’t employee-focused. Rather, their motivation was to have the employees be more productive, so companies made more money.

1. Watch the following videos of Gilbreth’s original Time and Motion Studies research. https://www.youtube.com/watch? v=hhvC10kGBu4&list=PLcjaMbVtfVvE04vDv_0lFzDLNAU_t3mHt&index=6 !!

Human Relations

 

 

! On the other hand, Elton Mayo, the father of Human Relations Movement, and his followers really did care about employees and wanted to create work environments and incentives that motivated employees. The Human Relations Theory of Management began in the early 1920s during the industrial revolution. At that time, productivity was the focus of business (Taylorism). Professor Elton Mayo began his experiments (the Hawthorne Studies), to prove the importance of people for productivity – not machines. 
 
 The Human Relations Management Theory is a researched belief that people desire to be part of a supportive team that facilitates development and growth. Therefore, if employees receive special attention and are encouraged to participate, they perceive their work has significance, and they are motivated to be more productive, resulting in high quality work. !

2. Watch the following videos of Elton Mayo’s Hawthorne Studies research.

https://www.youtube.com/watch? v=W7RHjwmVGhs&list=PLcjaMbVtfVvFRtQOsoPQ4OQmAwZIYPRcq&index=1

! https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=EEwCWR5Vkpw

The results of Professor Elton Mayo’s Hawthorne studies proved that the factor most influencing productivity is relationships. The researchers realized productivity increased due to relationships and being part of a supportive group where each employee’s work had a significant effect on the team output. As a side result, the researchers noticed that the increased attention the workers received by the researchers increased motivation and productivity, which resulted in what is the Hawthorne Effect.

After the Hawthorne experiments, Abraham Maslow and Douglas McGregor revealed how their motivational theory complemented theories of human relations. Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs Theory (1943, 1954) suggested five basic needs (physiological, safety, love, esteem and self- actualization) were motivating factors when viewing an employee’s work values, because the employee is motivated to ensure the most important of these individual needs are met.

McGregor was a contemporary of Abraham Maslow and also significantly contributed to developing management and motivational theory. He is best known for his Theory X and Theory Y concepts as presented in his book “The Human Side of Enterprise” (1960), which proposed that a manager’s individual assumptions about human nature and behavior determined how an individual would manage his/her employees. The Theory X and Theory Y concept supported motivation beliefs by realizing that employees contribute more to the organization if they feel responsible and valued.

Motivator–Hygiene Theory Psychologist Frederick Herzberg’s Motivator–Hygiene Theory, also known as the Two-factor Theory and began in 1964, also had an influence on Job Characteristics Theory and sought to

 

 

increase motivation and satisfaction through enriching jobs. According to Herzberg, individuals are not content with the satisfaction of lower-order needs at work (those needs associated with minimum salary levels or safe and pleasant working conditions). Rather, individuals look for the gratification of higher-level psychological needs having to do with achievement, recognition, responsibility, advancement, and the nature of the work itself. These ideas parallel Maslow’s hierarchical needs theory.

However, Herzberg added a new dimension to this theory by proposing a two-factor model of motivation. The theory predicts changes in “motivators,” which are intrinsic to the work (such as recognition, advancement, and achievement) will lead to higher levels of employee motivation and satisfaction; while “hygiene factors,” which are extrinsic to the work (such as company policies and salary) can lead to lower levels of dissatisfaction. Thus, satisfaction and dissatisfaction are not on a continuum with one increasing as the other diminishes, but are independent occurrences. This theory suggests that to improve job attitudes and productivity, administrators must recognize and attend to both sets of characteristics and not assume that an increase in satisfaction leads to decrease in dissatisfaction.

Quality Improvement Theory Quality Improvement Theory is based on the idea that jobs can be improved through the analysis and optimizing of work processes. Quality management, a recent occurrence in business, ensures that an organization, product, or service is consistent and has four main components: quality planning, quality assurance, quality control and quality improvement. Quality management is focused not only on product and service quality, but also on the means to achieve it. Therefore, it uses quality assurance and control of processes as well as products to achieve more consistent quality.

Walter A. Shewhart made a major step in the evolution towards quality management in 1924 when he first proposed a method for quality control for production, using statistical methods. This became the foundation for his ongoing work on statistical quality control. W. Edwards Deming later applied statistical process control methods in the United States during World War II, thereby successfully improving quality in the manufacture of munitions and other strategically important products. After WWII, Japan decided to make quality improvement a national imperative as part of rebuilding their economy, and sought the help of Shewhart, Deming and Joseph Juran. W. Edwards Deming championed quality improvement ideas in Japan from 1950 onwards and brought new life to Japanese manufacturing. Deming’s Total Quality Management Theory (and others’ theories) was eventually implemented in U.S. manufacturing companies in the 1970s, as a result of Japanese manufacturing outperforming U.S. companies and achieving very high levels of quality in products they produced.

Current quality management theories include Six Sigma, Kaizen, ISO 15504, ISO 9004, ISO 9001 (for IT, processes, and management), Quality Circles, Taguchi Methods, and Business Process Re- engineering.

 

 
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Benchmark- Health Care Legislation Enforcement Matrix

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Using the same health care organization from the last assignment (I used Blue Shield/Blue Cross) complete the “Legislation and Enforcement Matrix Template” for eight applicable legislations. This matrix will provide foundations information for future assignments in the course. Consider using this as a reference for future course assignments.

This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

Legislation and Enforcement Matrix Template

Enforcement Agency Legislation Name/Date Enacted Brief Overview of Regulation/Legislation (Regulatory and Legislative Expectations) (5.5)  

Penalties of Legislation
(Example) HHS Office for Civil Rights (OCR) enforces the Privacy and Security Standards of HIPAA (Health and Human Services, 2010).

 

 Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (1986)   The Enforcement Rule…

 

References

Health and Human Services. (2010). HIPAA Enforcement. Retrieved July 30, 2010, from http://www.hhs.gov/ocr/privacy/hipaa/enforcement/index.html

 

© 2014. Grand Canyon University. All Rights Reserved.

 
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Assignment 3: Case Study—TSA

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Assignment 3: Case Study—TSA

Writing Assignment

Read the Case: Can the TSA Secure Top Flight Performance, and do the following:

  • Summarize the case in 1-2 paragraphs.
  • Explain which of the HR practices described in the case you think contribute to greater efficiency and effectiveness of TSA employees. Why? Recommend at least two other practices which could be employed to increase efficiency and effectiveness of TSA employees. Justify your response.
  • Explain which of the HR practices described in the case you think can contribute to ethical behavior by TSA employees. Why? Recommend at least two other practices which could be employed to encourage ethical behavior of TSA employees. Justify your response.
  •  Explain at least 3 practices you would recommend to ensure TSA follows equal employment guidelines. Justify your response.

Write a 2- to 3-page paper in Word format. Apply current APA standards for writing style to your work.

Use the following file naming convention: LastnameFirstInitial_M1_A3.doc. For example, if your name is John Smith, your document will be named SmithJ_M1_A3. doc.

By the due date assigned, deliver your assignment to the Submissions Area.

Assignment 3 Grading CriteriaMaximum PointsClearly and concisely summarized the case in 1-2 paragraphs.10Identified and explained in detail the HR practices that contribute to increased efficiency and effectiveness of TSA employees and recommended and justified at least two additional practices to increase efficiency and effectiveness of TSA employees.25Identified and explained in detail the HR practices that contribute to ethical behavior of TSA employees and recommended and justified at least two additional practices to encourage ethical behavior of TSA employees.25Recommended and explained at least three relevant and appropriate practices to ensure TSA follows equal employment guidelines.25Applied current APA standards for editorial style, expression of ideas, and format of text, citations, and references. Supported assertions with examination of evidence by using appropriate sources. Demonstrated a thorough and complete understanding of the concepts.15Total:100

 
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Strategy And Performance Management At DSM

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Write a four  (4) page paper in which you:

  1. Using the stages from the performance management process, suggest the key processes that DSM needs to provide within its system in order to successfully link its key success factors (KSF). (Note: See Exhibit 4.) Provide a rationale for your suggestions.
  2. Select three (3) drivers, and examine the central manner in which DSM management has aligned its business strategies to performance measurement.
  3. Critique or defend DSM’s competitive advantage by using three (3) of the six (6) assessment points from the textbook. Justify your response.
  4. Use two (2) external sources to support your responses. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

  • Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
  • Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

  • Summarize the components of performance management processes and systems.
  • Evaluate how the performance management system aligns with organizational goals.
  • Assess the effectiveness of performance management programs and policies.
  • Use technology and information resources to research issues in performance management.
  • Write clearly and concisely about performance management using proper writing mechanics.
 
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Customers Today Want Separate Prices For Each Service Element And They Also Want The Right To Select The Elements They Want.

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Question 1

Customers today want separate prices for each service element and they also want the right to select the elements they want. The customers are said to be pressing for _____ services.

Question options:

a) complementary

b) perishable

c) variable

d) unbundled

Question 2

The zone of __________ is a range where a service dimension is deemed satisfactory, anchored by the minimum level consumers are willing to accept and the level they believe can and should be delivered.

Question options:

a) immunity

b) tolerance

c) reliability

d) assurance

Question 3

Services high in __________ qualities have characteristics that the buyers can evaluate before purchase.

Question options:

a) search

b) experience

c) credence

d) privacy

Question 4

Companies may wish to implement a(n) __________ to achieve more growth, to realize higher margins, or simply to position themselves as full-line manufacturers.

Question options:

a) up-market stretch

b) rebranding plan

c) outsourcing strategy

d) disintermediation policy

Question 5

How a consumer shops for organic foods and how he or she uses and disposes of the product is part of the consumers’ __________ that is important for marketers to consider.

Question options:

a) value proposition

b) consumption system

c) value system

d) quality perception

Question 6

The way the user performs the tasks of getting and using products and related services is the user’s total _____ system.

Question options:

a) consumption

b) consumable

c) consistent use

d) augmented

Question 7

A customer judges a product offering by three basic elements: product features and quality, services mix and quality, and:

Question options:

a) performance.

b) utility.

c) tangibility.

d) price.

Question 8

A consumer products firm manufactures and sells over 200 different sizes and varieties of jams and jellies. We can say that this manufacturer’s product mix has high:

Question options:

a) consistency.

b) depth.

c) intensity.

d) range.

Question 9

Josh gets his bike serviced at Dean’s Garage even though there’s another garage much closer to home. He prefers Dean’s because the work is usually done quickly and the staff tries to solve the issues with the bike as soon as possible. Dean’s Garage excels at which of the following five determinants of service quality?

Question options:

a) Reliability

b) Responsiveness

c) Assurance

d) Empathy

Question 10

Marketers have traditionally classified products on the basis of three characteristics: __________, tangibility, and use.

Question options:

a) availability

b) affordability

c) aesthetics

d) durability

Question 11

Regular maintenance and repair costs are known as _____ costs.

Question options:

a) service contract

b) out-of-pocket

c) fixed

d) facilitating services

Question 12

Cocktail lounges in restaurants are examples of:

Question options:

a) differential pricing.

b) cultivating nonpeak demand.

c) complementary services.

d) reservation systems.

Question 13

Which of the following is an example of a hybrid service?

Question options:

a) Teaching

b) Car

c) Restaurant meal

d) Soap

Question 14

Which of the following is a benefit of product mapping?

Question options:

a) Studying market matrices

b) Integrating target markets

c) Identifying market segments

d) Educating consumers

Question 15

The __________ of the product mix refers to the total number of items in the mix.

Question options:

a) width

b) length

c) depth

d) breadth

Question 16

Capital items are long-lasting goods that facilitate developing or managing the finished product. They include two groups:

Question options:

a) installations and natural products.

b) installations and component materials.

c) installations and operating supplies.

d) installations and equipment.

Question 17

Unlike physical products, services cannot be seen, tasted, felt, heard, or smelled before they are bought. This is known as the __________ aspect of services.

Question options:

a) inseparability

b) intangibility

c) variability

d) perishability

Question 18

Services high in __________ qualities are those services that have characteristics the buyer normally finds hard to evaluate even after consumption.

Question options:

a) trial

b) search

c) experience

d) credence

Question 19

The __________ rates the various elements of the service bundle and identifies required actions.

Question options:

a) company performance analysis

b) voice of customer measurement

c) customer factor measurement

d) importance-performance analysis

Question 20

Industrial goods can be classified as __________, capital items, or suppliers and business services based on their relative cost and how they enter the production process.

Question options:

a) service components

b) sub-assemblies

c) accessories

d) materials and parts

Lesson 7 Exam

Question 21

In __________ pricing, the firm bases its price largely on competitors’ prices.

Question options:

a) going-rate

b) auction-type

c) markup

d) target-return

Question 22

__________ price refers to what the consumers feel the product should cost.

Question options:

a) Fair

b) Typical

c) Usual discounted

d) List

Question 23

While shopping at the mall, Jane is asked by one of the sales representatives at the cosmetics counter to try out a new lipstick that her company is test marketing. The company representative asks her how much she would be willing to pay for the lipstick. After trying it out, Jane is of the opinion that $5 is just the right price for it. What type of a reference price is Jane using?

Question options:

a) Usual discounted price

b) Fair price

c) Maximum retail price

d) Last price paid

Question 24

Which of the following is the first step in setting a pricing policy?

Question options:

a) Selecting a pricing method

b) Selecting the pricing objective

c) Determining demand

d) Estimating cost

Question 25

A firm that is plagued with overcapacity, intense competition, or changing wants would do better if it pursues __________ as its major objective.

Question options:

a) market skimming

b) product-quality leadership

c) survival

d) profit maximization

Question 26

__________ auctions let would-be suppliers submit only one bid; they cannot know the other bids.

Question options:

a) Descending bid

b) Sealed-bid

c) English

d) Dutch

Question 27

When consumers examine products, they often compare an observed price to an internal price they remember. This is known as a(n) __________ price.

Question options:

a) markup

b) reference

c) market-skimming

d) accumulated

Question 28

Deducting the desired profit margin from the price at which a product will sell, given its appeal and competitors’ prices, is known as:

Question options:

a) overhead costing.

b) target costing.

c) activity based costing.

d) benefit analysis.

Question 29

The key to perceived-value pricing is to:

Question options:

a) reengineer the company’s operations.

b) deliver more unique value than competitors.

c) adopt subtle marketing tactics compared to competitors.

d) deliver more value but at a lower cost.

Question 30

Which of the following is TRUE regarding price elasticity?

Question options:

a) The higher the elasticity, the lesser is the volume growth resulting from a 1 percent price reduction.

b) Within the price indifference band, price changes have little or no effect on demand.

c) If demand is elastic, sellers will consider increasing the price.

d) Price elasticity does not depend on magnitude and direction of the contemplated price change.

Question 31

Many consumers are willing to pay $100 for a perfume that contains $10 worth of scent because the perfume is from a well-known brand. What kind of a pricing is the company depending on?

Question options:

a) Going-rate pricing

b) Image pricing

c) Market-skimming pricing

d) Target pricing

Question 32

A manufacturer has invested $750,000 in a new product and wants to set a price to earn a 15 percent ROI. The cost per unit is $18 and the company expects to sell 50,000 units in the first year. Calculate the company’s target-return price for this product.

Question options:

a) $20.25

b) $18.23

c) $18.10

d) $20.70

Question 33

__________ cost is the cost per unit at that level of production.

Question options:

a) Target

b) Average

c) Marginal

d) Opportunity

Question 34

When a company introduces a product at a very high price and then gradually drops the price over time, it is pursuing a __________ strategy.

Question options:

a) market-penetration pricing

b) market-skimming pricing

c) value-pricing

d) switching cost

Question 35

The decline in the average cost of production with accumulated production experience is called the:

Question options:

a) demand curve.

b) supply chain.

c) learning curve.

d) value chain.

Question 36

If demand changes considerably with a small change in price, the demand is said to be:

Question options:

a) unit elastic.

b) elastic.

c) inelastic.

d) marginal.

Question 37

Costs that differ directly with the level of production are known as _____ costs.

Question options:

a) fixed

b) overhead

c) opportunity

d) variable

Question 38

A market-penetration pricing strategy is most suitable when:

Question options:

a) a low price slows down market growth.

b) production and distribution costs fall with accumulated production experience.

c) a high price dissuades potential competitors from entering the market.

d) the market is characterized by inelastic demand.

Question 39

Companies that believe that a higher sales volume leads to lower unit costs and higher long-run profits are attempting to:

Question options:

a) maximize their market share.

b) skim the market.

c) become a product-quality leader.

d) merely survive in the market.

Question 40

A company must make payments each month for rent, heat, interest, and salaries. These are _____ costs.

Question options:

a) total

b) fixed

c) variable

d) opportunity

 
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Sustainable Marketing

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La Trobe University, BUS5SMM Assessment Task 3 – tasks and rubric

Page 1 of 5 3 February 2020

BUS5SMM Assessment Task 3: Marketing Case Research and Analysis – Marketing Mix, Sustainability and Competitive Advantage

Assessment Task 3: Overview

• Assessment task 3 is worth 30% of the subject total mark.

• It aims for the learner to

o Examine the concept of ‘Performance with Purpose’ introduced by PepsiCo former CEO, Indra Nooyi.

o Examine leadership theories applicable to Nooyi’s leadership style.

o Use the ‘Performance with Purpose’ case to critique Fast-Moving Consumer Goods (FMCG) companies which are using

sustainable positioning as a greenwash strategy.

• You will need to

o Watch the video about Indra Nooyi on LMS under Assessment 3 – Management Case Research and Analysis

o Browse the internet for the case of ‘Performance with Purpose’:

https://www.pepsico.com/sustainability/performance-with-purpose

o Read the suggested references in the Assessment Task 3 Resources folder on LMS.

• Students must not contact the organisation directly. The case must be based on material available in the public domain.

• This is an individual report.

• The report should demonstrate your ability to present a well written and well-structured report

• You should submit using the Moodle (LMS) submission link for this assignment.

 

 

 

 

 

 

La Trobe University, BUS5SMM Assessment Task 3 – tasks and rubric

Page 2 of 5 3 February 2020

Assessment Task 3 tasks and proposed structure

Coversheet (1%)

Provide title of the report, student full name and student number, subject code and title, and name of teacher

Table of contents (2%)

Report contents (headings/sub-headings) and their page numbers

Introduction (2%)

Purpose of this report, scope, and structure

Task 1: How will you use the leadership theories to analyse the importance of sustainable decisions as ‘Performance with

Purpose’? (15%)

This should include

• A brief history of Indra Nooyi’s personal experience which led to the concept of ‘Performance with Purpose’ (5%).

• A brief discussion on the concept of ‘Performance with Purpose’ and its relevance to sustainability (5%).

• A discussion on leadership theories which are relevant to Indra Nooyi’s leadership style (5%).

 

Task 2: Using ‘Performance with Purpose’ as a case, critique the management decisions of any three Fast-Moving Consumer

Goods (FMCG) companies which are using sustainable positioning as a greenwashing strategy (30%).

This should include

• Explaining the concept of greenwashing (3%)

• Choosing three Fast-Moving Consumer Goods (FMCG) companies and explaining how they practice greenwashing (9% for

each company – total 27%).

 

 

 

La Trobe University, BUS5SMM Assessment Task 3 – tasks and rubric

Page 3 of 5 3 February 2020

Task 3: Describe the examples of environmental and social impacts created in the three FMCG companies (15%).

Explain the environmental and social impact of the greenwashing of each of the three companies (5% each).

 

Task 4: Provide some short-term and long-term management recommendations for these companies (15%)

Provide recommendations on how these companies should respond to claims that they have been involved in greenwashing.

Scholarly pursuit: presentation, grammar, and spelling (10%)

● Demonstrate your ability to present a well written and well-structured report

● Report should be free from grammar and typing errors.

● Use headings and sub-headings where appropriate and number them, e.g. 1. Introduction, 2. Company background, etc.

● Write approximately 1,500 words (maximum 1,750 words).

● Use Calibri 12 point font, 1.5 line spacing.

● Start a new paragraph when a new or different point/topic/issue is to be discussed. Avoid using very large paragraphs.

● Include relevant tables, graphs, and figures (whichever is applicable).

● Use colours and images where appropriate; make your report look interesting.

References (10%)

• Use Harvard referencing.

• 10 references are expected. Use at least five academic references (peer reviewed journal articles, conference papers,

textbook, etc).

• Use recent company / industry reports.

• Do not use Wikipedia as a reference. Rather, you may use academically acceptable references used by Wikipedia.

• List the references used at the end of the report. The reference list is not included in the word count.

• All references in the list should be cited in the text.

• Include an in-text citation when you refer to, summarize, paraphrase, or quote from another source.

 

 

La Trobe University, BUS5SMM Assessment Task 3 – tasks and rubric

Page 4 of 5 3 February 2020

Rubric Assessment Task 3: Individual Marketing Case Research and Analysis

Criteria Scale

High Distinction Distinction Credit Pass Inadequate

Introductory pages: Cover sheet (1%)

Table of Contents (2%) Introduction (2%)

The submission has demonstrated perfect identification of all the required items of each section

The submission has demonstrated competence in identifying the required items of each section

The submission has demonstrated a developing approach in identifying the required items of each section

The submission has met the minimum requirement in identifying the required items of each section

The submission has not met the minimum requirement in identifying the required items of each section

Explanation of the action concept and

synthesis it with theories (20%)

The submission demonstrated a perfect identification of the

leadership theories in relation to ‘Performance with Purpose’.

The submission competently identifies the

leadership theories in relation to ‘Performance with Purpose’.

The submission demonstrated a developing identification of

the leadership theories in relation to ‘Performance with Purpose’.

The submission has met the baseline requirements for

identifying the leadership theories in relation to ‘Performance with Purpose’.

The submission has not met the baseline requirements for

identifying the leadership theories in relation to ‘Performance with Purpose’.

Demonstration of

the body of knowledge and ability to extend it to review

(30%)

The submission is a perfect

demonstration of the body of knowledge exceeding the requirement in commenting the management decisions of

three FMCG companies which are using sustainable positioning as a greenwash strategy.

The submission has

demonstrated a competent demonstration of the body of knowledge in commenting the management decisions of three

FMCG companies which are using sustainable positioning as a greenwash strategy.

The submission has

demonstrated a developing approach to the body of knowledge in commenting the management decisions of three

FMCG companies which are using sustainable positioning as a greenwash strategy.

The submission has met the

requirement in demonstrating the body of knowledge in commenting the management decisions of three FMCG

companies which are using sustainable positioning as a greenwash strategy.

The submission has not met

the requirement, nor has it commented the management decisions of three FMCG companies which are using

sustainable positioning as a greenwash strategy.

Identify the sustainable impacts (15%)

The submission has demonstrated perfect identification of the social impacts created by the

three FMCG companies.

The submission has demonstrated competence in identifying the social impacts created by the three FMCG

companies.

The submission has demonstrated a developing approach in identifying the social impacts created by the

three FMCG companies.

The submission has met the minimum requirement to identify the social impacts created by the three FMCG

companies.

The submission has not met the minimum requirement to identify the social impacts created by the three FMCG

companies.

Ability to make recommendations (15%)

The submission has perfectly proposed some recommendations for the three FMCG companies.

The submission has competently met the requirement to propose some recommendations for the three

FMCG companies.

The submission has demonstrated a developing approach in proposing some recommendations for the three

FMCG companies.

The submission has met the minimum requirement to propose some recommendations for the three FMCG companies.

The submission has not met the minimum requirement to propose some recommendations for the three

FMCG companies.

Ability to present a well written and well-structured

report (5%)

An excellent constructed and presented assignment. Free of spelling, grammatical,

punctuation and typing errors.

Well written and presented assignment. Minor spelling, grammatical, punctuation and

typing errors.

Reasonably written and presented assignment. Some spelling, grammatical,

punctuation and typing errors.

A coherent assignment but needs to address numerous errors in presentation including spelling,

punctuation and grammar.

Poorly written and presented assignment. Major spelling, grammatical, punctuation and

typing errors.

Use of credible references and able to reference

correctly (10%)

Excellent reference list which contains a wide range of sources. Presently correctly.

 

Good reference list which contains an adequate range of sources. Odd error in style

 

Reasonable reference list but needed more sources. Some referencing errors.

 

Reference list is limited and needs wider range of sources. A number of errors.

 

Major errors in referencing

 

 

 

La Trobe University, BUS5SMM Assessment Task 3 – tasks and rubric

Page 5 of 5 3 February 2020

 
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MANAGEMENT

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MUST BE 800 WORDS

1. There are several recommendations for documentation of performance and developmental activities. Describe three (3) recommendations and why you believe they are important.

2. In this video, Charles Rogel of DecisionWise discusses 5 myths concerning the process.

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=jAA01x-xp6Q

After watching the video, please share your thoughts on any new learning you had from the video or ideas you may have for overcoming some of the possible concerns based on what the myths reveal.

FOR QUESTION 3 AND 4 Do not use outside resources for your answers. Make sure to include in-text citations with supporting reference.

3. Avett Manufacturing Company allows employees to purchase materials, such as metal and lumber, for personal use at a price equal to the company’s cost. To purchase materials, an employee must complete a materials requisition form, which must then be approved by the employee’s immediate supervisor. Brian Dadian, an assistant cost accountant, then charges the employee an amount based on Avett’s net purchase cost.

Brian is in the process of replacing a deck on his home and has requisitioned lumber for personal use, which has been approved in accordance with company policy. In computing the cost of the lumber, Brian reviewed all the purchase invoices for the past year. He then used the lowest price to compute the amount due the company for the lumber.

The Institute of Management Accountants (IMA) is the professional organization for managerial accountants. The IMA has established four principles of ethical conduct for its members: honesty, fairness, objectivity, and responsibility. These principles are available at the IMA Web site: www.imanet.org.

Using the IMA’s four principles of ethical conduct, evaluate Brian’s behavior. Has he acted in an ethical manner? Why?

4. TAC Industries Inc. sells heavy equipment to large corporations and federal, state, and local governments. Corporate sales are the result of a competitive bidding process, where TAC competes against other companies based on selling price. Sales to the government, however, are determined on a cost plus basis, where the selling price is determined by adding a fixed markup percentage to the total job cost.

Tandy Lane is the cost accountant for the Equipment Division of TAC Industries Inc. The division is under pressure from senior management to improve income from operations. As Tandy reviewed the division’s job cost sheets, she realized that she could increase the division’s income from operations by moving a portion of the direct labor hours that had been assigned to the job order cost sheets of corporate customers onto the job order costs sheets of government customers. She believed that this would create a “win–win” for the division by (1) reducing the cost of corporate jobs, and (2) increasing the cost of government jobs whose profit is based on a percentage of job cost. Tandy submitted this idea to her division manager, who was impressed by her creative solution for improving the division’s profitability.

Is Tandy’s plan ethical?

 
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