Leadership & management discussion responds.

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Leadership & management discussion responds.

(Leadership & management discussion responds.)

Question description

Please read the peers discussions and respond to them APA format with reference

Discussion 1

Conflict is defined here as a clash or struggle that occurs when a real or perceived threat
or difference exists in the desires, thoughts, attitudes, feelings, or behaviors of two or more parties (Deutsch, 1973). It exists as a tension or
struggle arising from mutually exclusive or opposing actions, thoughts, opinions, or feelings. Conflict can be internal or external to an individual or
group. It can be positive as well as negative (Huber, 2014)

This actually happen in our unit; there was a new nurse manager that would like to reorganize the whole unit. She brush off a lot of employees, both nurses and senior technicians because of her different ways, to the point that a group of employees decided to organized signed petition against the new manager and to be submitted to HR.

I did not signed the petition and explained to the other staff that it’s not fair to do it because it was less than 6 months that she was in power. I was able to convince the majority that we have to give her that “honeymoon” stage at least before we do a something that would put a wedge to our relationship. There was a heated argument between me and the leader that wants to petition the new manager. I told her that if transition period fails “I would be the first one to sign the petition paper and personally hand the new manager our signed petition”; logic prevails and the signed petition did not push through.

After 6 months we have learned to live with each other’s personality and the new manager also mellowed downed, she turned out to be a good manager and was promoted again to upper management. She heard about the action that I did and appreciates it by maintaining a good open relationship to me and to the whole staff.

Reference:

Huber, D. (2014). Leadership and Nursing Care Management, 5th Edition. [Pageburstl]. Retrieved from https://pageburstls.elsevier.com/#/books/978145574…

Discussion 2(Leadership & management discussion responds.)

A role of a leader includes the ability to think and identify problems critically (Huber, 2014). In this situation, the new director decided to proceed with an action without having asked the rest of the employees. This can cause issues as not everyone agrees with the new plan. This disagreement can lead to arguments within the workplace and disrupt the peace. The best way to go about this is to do what should have been done in the first place and communicate with one another. The leader should communicate openly with the rest of the team and receive some of their input. One of the roles of a leader includes using effective communication to “disarm conflict” (Huber, 2014, p. 4). When the concerns are brought up, the nurse leader can incorporate their ideas and formulate a plan to bring up to the director. When a clear plan is in place, negotiations can occur.

Other factors that can lead to conflict include the nurses leaving the job and looking for a new one, due to poor communication and decision making. If this issue occurs, the nurse leader will have to set up a meeting with the director. In this meeting, the leader can bring up the issue and discuss ways that the problem can be resolved. The leader will have to advocate for the workers and mention to the director that ultimately, the nurses will be doing the work and whatever changes are made, will affect them. Another thing, because the department was organized without any input from the workers, this new setting can cause a lot of confusion and create the workplace to be chaotic or slower than usual as the workers try to adapt. One way to resolve this is to ask the workers about their concerns, and if one of them involves the reorganization of the unit, then the leader can come up with a strategy to incorporate a quick tour of the new unit.

Reference

Huber, D. (2014). Leadership and Management Principles. Leadership and Nursing Care Management, 5th Edition. [Pageburstl]. Retrieved from https://pageburstls.elsevier.com/#/books/978145574…

Discussion 3

In a situation where the department makes changes that employees don’t agree with or have negative perceptions of it, it’s essential for leaders and managers to find a solution to this conflict. Conflict occurs when differences exist in understanding or thoughts of a particular situation between two or more parties (Huber, 2013). When it involves multiple individuals within a group, this conflict is called intragroup conflict (Huber, 2013). This involves the differing point of views of members of a group or subgroups in a particular goal, function or change in policy. The conflict also has constructive and destructive effects. As for constructive, it can improve decision quality, stimulate creativity, encourage interest, and fosters change. On the other hand, it can also constrict communication, decrease cohesiveness, and hinder performance in a work environment.

In this particular scenario, it’s essential to conduct an assessment of levels and sources of the conflict, which means construction of strategies will depend on if the level of the conflict is high or low (Huber, 2013). Given the scenario and how resentful the nurses feel about the change within the department, we can easily categorize this as a high-level conflict. Next will be to identify the boundaries of the conflict; as such finding areas of agreement and disagreement. By doing so, the organization can find common ground to build upon when discussing the benefits of the change. This will also enable the organization to understand the factors that limit the possibilities of managing the conflict constructively. Once the organization has gained the trust of its employees, it should create an environment where the individuals involved are able to express ideas, feeling, and attitudes freely. By doing so, the organization is implementing a problem-solving strategy where all involved parties can mutually agree to a solution to the conflict.

References:

Huber, D. (2013). Leadership and Nursing Care Management, 5th Edition [VitalSource Bookshelf version]. Retrieved from https://bookshelf.vitalsource.com/books/9781455740…

Discussion 4(Leadership & management discussion responds.)

Networking is very important in dialysis. The dialysis community very small that is why “everybody knows things about everybody in our community” you can’t keep any secrets in our field. . Even if you came from a different county there will be some one that would easily get your background, if you are a team player or a slacker. I use these networking to my advantage by asking around first if the manager is good and if the company has a good working environment even before I apply to a particular job opening

Networking too comes in handy when you are being recommended for the job. Sometimes the manager herself is the one that “pirates” the worker from another company because of networking.

Identify two affiliations or a situation in which you have networked for the health of a population or your community.


As a Certified Dialysis Nurse my professional affiliation is American Nephrology Nurses Association. I am also a member of my School’s Alumni Association. There are times that they sponsor free clinics in our community specially providing flu vaccine to the elderly. The School Alumni Association is very active in it and as a nurse I sometimes go with them. The professional affiliation offer discounts to some health symposiums and I also sometimes avail of it when I have the time.

Discussion 5(Leadership & management discussion responds.)

Nursing affiliations and networking are essential for nurse leaders because they can receive extra help when needed. Networking will help in my career future because it will remind me that nursing takes a team effort. When others can offer their support and opinions, it can make the task less daunting. Networking helps nurses to get involved and to become engaged (ANA, 2015). Nurses get to meet like-minded people (ANA, 2015).

In the field of nursing, this connection is vital as it can also serve as a way to de-stress. These individuals have probably gone through the same thing and have advice for these kinds of problems. By joining affiliations and networking, the nurse will expand their knowledge and learn from others. Furthermore, networking can also result in career advancements (ANA, 2015).

An example of a situation where I networked for the health of a population in my community took place in nursing school. During my psych rotation, we decided to make “care-packages” for the homeless, by filling backpacks up with life-necessities such as toothbrushes, gloves, socks, etc. During this time, we networked and asked individuals in our community such as church families and close relatives and friends, for donations. We also affiliated with a homeless shelter in a nearby city. This shelter let us know what day would work best, and we made it work. We worked together and took advantage of this connection that we had to improve the lives of others in our communities.

Reference

American Nurses Association [ANA]. (2015). Professional Networking for Nurses. Retrieved from https://www.nursingworld.org/resources/individual/…

Discussion 6(Leadership & management discussion responds.)

Professional affiliation and networking’s of organizations help improve patient care and implement a support system for nursing leaders nationwide. There are a variety of benefits related networking; it initially provides members the opportunity to gain an education on methods of becoming vocal about the nursing practice while making new connections with other healthcare members (ANA, 2015). Networking also allows for nurses to exchange knowledge and spark discussions about a specialty or general practice. It provides the framework to connect with like-minded nurses within the organization and help innovate ideas. I believe that information is knowledge and knowledge is the key to growth, and networking allows members to obtain both. It grants opportunities, resources to updated evidence-based practices and access to other mentorship for guidance and support. Other significant benefits are related to the increased ability to network with their peers and become an active member of the organization.

The Academy of Medical-Surgical Nurse (AMSN) is a dedicated specialty organization that I’m a member of. It provides me with a support system and has an active community of 11,000 medical-surgical nurses. The purpose of the organization is to motivate and empower nurses to become leaders in their professional environment (AMSN, 2016). AMSN hub, for instance, is a networking resource I often use to communicate and connect with nurses nationwide. It is designed as a platform for nurses to connect through discussion of topics related to the Medical-surgical practice. It allows nurses to network and collaborates with other fellow professionals on the most current issues, findings and visions of the practice (AMSN, 2016). Because of this of networking platform, I’m able to broaden my understanding of the Medical-surgical specialty and improve patient care. I used this network to gain access to new information about the specialty and share ideas to my team to improve the work environment.

References:

Academy of Medical-Surgical Nurses [AMSN]. (2016) About the AMSN Hub. Retrieved from website: https://www.amsn.org/membership/amsn-hub/about-ams…

American Nurses Association [ANA]. (2015). Professional Networking for Nurses. Retrieved from website: http://nursingworld.org/Professional Networking-for-Nurses

 
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Critique ethical legal concepts

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Critique ethical legal concepts, principles, & dilemmas related to the provision of health care.

(Critique ethical legal concepts)

Question description

My part is in BOLD… I only need one part done. NOT the whole paper! 2-3 pages.

MN506-2: Critique ethical-legal concepts, principles, and dilemmas related to the provision of health care.

Please take a moment to watch this Assignment Introduction, or read the presentation transcript.

Instructions:

You will construct a group contract in Unit 2. In the contract, you will determine how your group will communicate and share documents. Roles of the group will be delineated. You will work from Unit 3 to Unit 7 on a malpractice case.

There are two malpractice cases. Your instructor will assign your group either Case Study 1: Malpractice Action brought by Yolanda Pinnelas or Case Study 2: Wrongful Death by Howard Carpenter on Behalf of Wilma Carpenter, Deceased. The group will construct a 10–15-page paper about the legal constructs involved in one of the cases.

Directions:

The group will write a10–15-page APA formatted paper (title page and references list do not count towards the 10–15 pages). Support the paper with peer reviewed articles and case law where applicable. You must have minimum of eight references. You may have an appendix that has samples of documents that support your positions or expands on the facts of the case.

You will post a draft of the group paper in the Discussion Board of Unit 6. This will give you an opportunity to get peer feedback and to learn from others.

You may use Goggle Hangouts™, SKYPE®, or other conferencing tools. Additionally, you may want to use a document-sharing tool such as Google Drive®. The paper should discuss the following issues:

  • Liability issues
  • Parties involved and who should be sued
  • Defenses of the parties
  • Documents that the plaintiff’s side will ask for and how they will be used
  • Standards of care
  • Duty, breach, damages, and proximate cause
  • Insurance issues
  • Risk management issues before and after the incident
  • Documentation and mandatory reporting
  • Who should write the incident report and what should it say?
  • The doctrine of Respondeat Superior and how it would apply the issues surrounding informed consent Preparation for court of the parties (MY PART)

Due: Day 7 by 11:59 p.m. (ET)

Case Study 1: Malpractice Action Brought by Yolanda Pinnelas

People involved in case:

Yolanda Pinnelas — patient

Betty DePalma, RN, MS — nursing supervisor

Elizabeth Adelman, RN — recovery room nurse

William Brady, M.D. — plastic surgeon

Mary Jones, RN — IV insertion

Carol Price, LPN

Jeffery Chambers, RN — staff nurse

Patricia Peters, PharmD — pharmacy

Diana Smith, RN

Susan Post, JD — risk manager

Amy Green — quality assurance

Michael Parks, RN, MS, CNS — education coordinator

SAFE-INFUSE — pump

Brand X infusion — pump

Caring Memorial Hospital

Facts:

The patient, Yolanda Pinellas, is a 21-year-old female admitted to Caring Memorial Hospital for chemotherapy. Caring Memorial is a hospital in upstate New York. Yolanda was a student at Ithaca College and studying to be a music conductor.

Yolanda was diagnosed with anal cancer and was to receive Mitomycin for her chemotherapy. Mary Jones, RN, inserted the IV on the day shift around 1300, and the patient, Yolanda, was to have Mitomycin administered through the IV. An infusion machine was used for the delivery. The Mitomycin was hung by Jeffery Chambers, RN, and he was assigned to Yolanda. The unit had several very sick patients and was short staffed. Jeffery had worked a double shift the day before and had to double back to cover the evening shift. He was able to go home between shifts and had about 6 hours of sleep before returning. The pharmacy was late in delivering the drug so it was not hung until the evening shift. Patricia Peters, PharmD, brought the chemotherapy to the unit.

On the evening shift, Carol Price, LPN, heard the infusion pump beep several times. She had ignored it as she thought someone else was caring for the patient. Diana Smith, RN, was also working the shift and had heard the pump beep several times. She mentioned it to Jeffery. She did not go into the room until about 45 minutes later. The patient testified that a nurse came in and pressed some buttons and the pump stopped beeping. She was groggy and not sure who the nurse was or what was done.

Diana Smith responded to the patient’s call bell and found the IV had been dislodged from the patient’s vein. There was no evidence that the Mitomycin had gone into the patient’s tissue. Diana immediately stopped the IV, notified the physician, and provided care to the hand. The documentation in the medical record indicates that there was an infiltration to the IV.

The hospital was testing a new IV infusion pump called SAFE-INFUSE. The supervisory nurse was Betty DePalma, RN. Betty took the pump off the unit. No one made note of the pump’s serial number as there were six in the hospital being used. There was also another brand of pumps being used in the hospital. It was called Brand X infusion pump. Betty did not note the name of the pump or serial number. The pump was not isolated or sent to maintenance and eventually the hospital decided not to use SAFE-INFUSE so the loaners were sent back to the company.

Betty and Dr. William Brady are the only ones that carry malpractice insurance. The hospital also has malpractice insurance.

Two weeks after the event, the patient developed necrosis of the hand and required multiple surgical procedures, skin grafting, and reconstruction. She had permanent loss of function and deformity in her third, fourth, and fifth fingers. The claimant is alleging that, because of this, she is no longer able to perform as a conductor, for which she was studying.

During the procedure for the skin grafting, the plastic surgeon, Dr. William Brady, used a dermatome that resulted in uneven harvesting of tissue and further scarring in the patient’s thigh area where the skin was harvested.

The risk manager is Susan Post, JD, who works in collaboration with the quality assurance director Amy Green. Amy had noted when doing chart reviews over the last 3 months prior to this incident that there were issues of short staffing and that many nurses were working double shifts, evenings, and nights then coming back and working the evening shift. She was in the process of collecting data from the different units on this observation. She also noted a pattern of using float nurses to several units. Prior to this incident, the clinical nurse specialist, Michael Parks, RN, MS, CNS, was consulting with Susan Post and Amy Green about the status of staff education on this unit and what types of resources and training was needed.

 
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Pros & Cons Of Diagnosing Children

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Pros & Cons Of Diagnosing Children

(Pros & Cons Of Diagnosing Children)

Pros and Cons of Diagnosing Children   One of the great controversies in the field of psychology relates to how we define normal and abnormal behavior. There is general agreement with the official definitions of abnormal behavior; that is, abnormal behavior is severe or maladaptive enough to need diagnosis and psychological or psychiatric treatment. These official definitions are contained in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM). There have been many revisions of this manual over the years.

Currently, we are using the fifth edition, or the DSM-5 (APA, 2013).  Children and adolescents who display certain behaviors that cause them to have significant difficulty in their everyday functioning are likely to be diagnosed with one of the disorders in the DSM. Some of those diagnoses are temporary, whereas others are life-long.  Review the following case:

Anna, a four-year-old Mexican-American girl, lives with her mother and father. Anna’s parents immigrated to the United States years before her birth. Her mother speaks only Spanish with her, while her father speaks only English. Anna’s parents are migrant workers who must move regularly. Anna and her parents have moved over ten times since her birth. They hope to provide Anna with more stability, now that she is approaching school age. Therefore, they are seeking other forms of employment.   Anna recently completed kindergarten orientation.

The school psychologist recommended that her parents have her evaluated further, as her speech development is significantly delayed. She speaks very little; her vocabulary was screened at the kindergarten orientation and was found to be at least two years behind typical speech development.

During the kindergarten screening, Anna was hyperactive, unable to sit still, distracted, and unable to complete the tasks. She was unable to complete them partially due to their difficulty level, but also due to her inability to focus sufficiently.   After a thorough evaluation at the local mental health center, Anna was diagnosed with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). She began participating in a behavioral modification program with a bilingual therapist, who speaks both English and Spanish. She will be evaluated in a few weeks by the psychiatrist, who will decide whether to prescribe stimulant medication for the ADHD.

Based on your analysis of the case, respond to the following:

•Analyze the pros and cons of diagnosing Anna with a mental health disorder. Identify at least three benefits and at least three costs Anna and her family may experience as a result of her diagnosis. When deciding which pros and cons to identify, consider benefits and costs related to at least four of the following categories:

◦Stigma

◦Prescription of psychiatric medication to children

◦Selection of a psychotherapy approach

◦Multicultural factors

◦Labeling or mislabeling of children

◦Early intervention   Write your initial response in 300­­–500 words. Apply APA standards to citation of sources, including in-text citations and full references. Incorporate information from at least two academic sources to support your statements or ideas.

 
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Ethics and Professional Practices

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Ethics and Professional Practices

(Ethics and Professional Practices)

WEL202A – AB2, Essay Page 1 Assessment Brief Program Bachelor Of Applied Social Science Subject Ethics And Professional Practices Subject Code WEL202A Name Of Assessment Assessment 2: Essay Length 2000 Words Learning Outcomes Addressed By This Assessment:

WEL202A – AB2, Essay Page 1
Assessment Brief Program Bachelor of Applied Social Science
Subject Ethics and Professional Practices
Subject code WEL202A
Name of assessment Assessment 2: Essay
Length 2000 words
Learning outcomes addressed by this assessment: A, B, C
Submission Date: End of week 7, Sunday 11.55 pm
Assessment brief summary: This essay asks you to comment on key elements of professional
practice, reflecting a “principles” based approach to ethics and their
application within the confines of ethical frameworks.
Total marks 30
Weighting 30%
Students are advised that any submissions past the due date incur a 10% penalty per day,
calculated from the total mark e.g. a task marked out of 40 will incur a 4 mark penalty per day.
Students must attempt all tasks in the unit to be eligible to pass the unit
More information can be found in Think Education Assessment Policy document on the Think
Education website (http://www.think.edu.au). WEL202A – AB2, Essay Page 2
Assessment Description:
The key moral principles are respect for autonomy, non-maleficence, beneficence and justice. In this essay
please discuss the importance of complying with ethical framework in professional practice.
Your essay should answer the following questions:
1. What is informed consent?
2. How would you check to see whether you had informed consent?
3. What are the limits of confidentiality when working with clients?
4. What is a professional misconduct?
5. Explain what is meant by an ethical framework.
6. In your opinion – who should be providing the ethical frameworks for various professions?
Marking Criteria:
Max. in
category
Your
points
Answering the question and responding to the topic 10
Links to theories and concepts 10
Number and choice of appropriate references 4
Word count, readability, and structure 3
In-text references and reference list, accuracy and use of correct
referencing style 3
Total: 30
Comments: WEL202A – AB2, Essay Page 3
What we want to see:
This essayi will incorporate a formal introduction, main points and conclusion; as this is an essay,
the introduction and conclusion, as well as individual paragraphs addressing different issues should
not be flagged with subheadings, but incorporated in the essay.
The work must be fully referenced with in-text citations and a reference list at the end. We
recommend you work with your Academic Writing Guide to ensure that you reference correctly. You
will find a link to this document on the main page of every unit, under the ‘Assessments’ section.
Correct academic writing and referencing are essential tasks that you need to learn. We
recommend a minimum of ten references.
Referencing: References are assessed for their quality. You should draw on quality academic
sources, such as books, chapters from edited books, journals etc. Your textbook can be used as a
reference, but not the Study Guide and lecture notes. We want to see evidence that you are capable
of conducting your own research. Also, in order to help markers determine students’ understanding
of the work they cite, all in-text references (not just direct quotes) must include the specific page
number/s if shown in the original.
Researching: You can search for peer-reviewed journal articles, which you can find in the online
journal databases and which can be accessed from the library homepage. Reputable news sites
such as The Conversation (https://theconversation.com/au/health), online dictionaries and online
encyclopedias are acceptable as a starting point to gain knowledge about a topic. Government
departments, research institutes such as the National Health and Medical Research Council
(NHMRC), international organisations such as the World Health Organisation (WHO) and local not
for profit organisations such as the Cancer Council are also good resources.
Formatting: The assessment MUST be submitted electronically in Microsoft Word format. Other
formats may not be readable by markers. Please be aware that any assessments submitted in other
formats will be considered LATE and will lose marks until it is presented in Word.
What we don’t want to see:
Plagiarism: All sources of information need to properly be acknowledged. Please refer to the
plagiarism website on blackboardii. By clicking the ‘Upload this file’ button you acknowledge that
you have read, understood and can confirm that the work you are about to submit complies with
the Flexible and Online plagiarism policy as shown in the JNI Student Handbook. Like other forms
of cheating plagiarism is treated seriously. Plagiarising students will be referred to the Program
Manager.
Word Count: Marks will be deducted for failure to adhere to the word count – as a general rule you
may go over or under by 10% than the stated length.
Late Submissions: Students are advised that any submissions past the due date incur a 10%
penalty per day, calculated from the total mark e.g. a task marked out of 30 will incur 3 marks
penalty per day.
No submission: Students must attempt all tasks to be eligible to pass the unit.
More information can be found in Think Education Assessment Policy document on the Think
Education website. WEL202A – AB2, Essay Page 4
Resources Available to YOU:
1. Academic writing guide link
https://laureateau.blackboard.com/webapps/blackboard/content/listContent.jsp?course_id=_20163_
1&content_id=_2498847_1&mode=reset
2. Writing & referencing: The link to the Learning and Academic Skills Unit
(LASU) is on the left pulldown menu on the blackboard home page:
https://laureateau.blackboard.com/webapps/blackboard/content/listContent.jsp?course_id=_20163_
1&content_id=_2498847_1&mode=reset
LASU also provides a series of academic skills tutorials. Please contact Caroline
Spaans (cspaans@laureate.net.au, 02 949 232 14).
3. Researching: A guide to researching is available on the library page
http://library.think.edu.au/research_skills/.
Please contact the online and Pyrmont librarian for Health, Dawn Vaux
(dvaux@laureate.net.au) if you would like further help or a tutorial on how to do
research this way. By clicking the ‘Upload this file’ button below you acknowledge that you have read and understood and can confirm that the work you are about to submit complies with the Flexible and Online plagiarism policy as shown in the JNI Student Handbook.
i https://laureateau.blackboard.com/webapps/blackboard/content/listContent.jsp?course_id=_20163_1&content_id=_2498856_1&mode=reset
ii https://laureateau.blackboard.com/webapps/blackboard/content/listContent.jsp?course_id=_20163_1&content_id=_2498858_1&mode=reset

 
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Literature Review4

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Literature Review4

(Literature Review4)

Prior to beginning work on this assignment, read the Ryder, Ban, & Chentsova-Dutton (2011) “Towards a Cultural-Clinical Psychology,” American Psychological Association (2014) “Guidelines for Prevention in Psychology,” Hage, et al. (2007) “Walking the Talk: Implementing the Prevention Guidelines and Transforming the Profession of Psychology,” and Rivera-Mosquera, et al. (2007) “Prevention Activities in Professional Psychology: A Reaction to the Prevention Guidelines” articles.

Clinical and counseling psychology is a dynamic field that is constantly evolving and striving toward better treatment options and modalities. In this literature review, you will explore and integrate psychological research into a literature review, addressing current trends in three major areas of clinical and counseling psychology: assessment, clinical work, and prevention.

In your review, include the following headings, and address the required content.

Assessment
Support this section with information from the Ryder et al. (2011) article “Towards a Cultural-Clinical Psychology” and at least one additional peer-reviewed article from the Ashford University Library.

  • Compare the assessments currently in use by clinical and counseling psychologists.
  • Explain the trend towards cultural-clinical psychology and the suitability of clinical assessments with diverse clients.

Clinical work
Support this section using a minimum of three peer-reviewed articles from the Ashford University Library. The recommended articles for this week may be useful in generating your response.

  • Compare and contrast technical eclecticism, assimilative integration and theoretical integration.
  • Provide a historical context and identify the major theorists for each perspective.
  • Assess the trends in psychotherapy integration.
  • List three pros and cons for each perspective, sharing which perspective most closely aligns with your own.
  • Analyze the major trends in psychology and explain the connection between evidenced-based practices and psychotherapy integration.

Prevention
Review the “Guidelines for Prevention in Psychology” (American Psychological Association, 2014), and support this section with information from the Hage, et al. (2007) “Walking the Talk: Implementing the Prevention Guidelines and Transforming the Profession of Psychology,” and Rivera-Mosquera, et al. (2007) “Prevention Activities in Professional Psychology: A Reaction to the Prevention Guidelines” articles.

  • Describe general prevention strategies implemented by clinical and counseling psychologists at the micro, meso, exo, and macro levels.

The Literature Review

  • Must be 7 to 10 double-spaced pages in length (not including title and references pages) and formatted according to APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site..
  • Must include a separate title page with the following:
    • Title of paper
    • Student’s name
    • Course name and number
    • Instructor’s name
    • Date submitted
  • Must use at least seven peer-reviewed sources in addition to the course text.
  • Must document all sources in APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.
  • Must include a separate references page that is formatted according to APA style as outline
 
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NR511 Week4 Midterm Exam Version1

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NR511 Week4 Midterm Exam Version1

(NR511 Week4 Midterm Exam Version1)

Question 1:  Which of the following is a crucial element of developing a guideline?

a. Creating a physician expert panel
b. Reviewing the literature with ratings of available evidence
c. Conducting an external review of a guideline
d. Developing evidence-based tables

Question 2:  African American patients seem to have a negative reaction to which of the following asthma medications?

a. Inhaled corticosteroids

b. Long-term beta-agonist bronchodilators

c. Leukotriene receptor agonist
d. Oral corticosteroid

Question 3:  Jolene has breast cancer that has been staged as T1, N0, M0. What might this mean?

a. The tumor size cannot be evaluated, the cancer has not spread to the lymph nodes, and the distant spread cannot be evaluated.
b. The cancer is in situ, it is spreading into the lymph nodes, but the spread otherwise cannot be evaluated.
c. The cancer is less than 2 cm in size and has not spread to the lymph nodes or other parts of the body.
d. The cancer is about 5 cm in size, nearby lymph nodes cannot be evaluated, and there is no evidence of distant spreading.

Question 4:  Sondra’s peripheral vestibular disease causes dizziness and vertigo. Which of the following medications will help to decrease edema in the labyrinth of the ear?

a. Meclizine
b. Diphenhydramine
c. Diamox
d. Promethazine

Question 5:  Mandy presents with a cauliflower-like wart that is in her anogenital region. You suspect it was sexually transmitted and document this as a:
a. Filiform/digitate wart.

b. Dysplastic cervical lesion.

c. Condyloma accuminata.
d. Koilocytosis.

Question 6:  Inattention and a sleep-wake cycle disturbance are the hallmark symptoms of?

a. Dementia

b. Alzheimer’s disease

c. Parkinson’s disease

d. Delirium

Question 7:  You have taught Jennifer, age 15, about using a flow meter to assess how to manage her asthma exacerbations. She calls you today because her peak expiratory flow rate is 65%. What would you tell her?

a. “Take your short-acting beta-2 agonist, remain quiet, and call back tomorrow.”
b. “Use your rescue inhaler, begin the prescription of oral glucocorticoids you have, and call back tomorrow.”
c. “Drive to the emergency room (ER) now.”
d. “Call 911.”

Question 8:  A patient is seen in the clinic with hematuria confirmed on microscopic examination. The clinician should inquire about the ingestion of which of these substances that might be the cause of hematuria?
a. NSAIDs

b. Beets

c. Vitamin A
d. Red meat

Question 9:  Which of the following is an example of tertiary prevention in a patient with chronic renal failure?

a. Fluid restriction
b. Hemodialysis 4 days a week
c. High-protein diet
d. Maintain blood pressure at 120/80

Question 10:  Which of the following conditions is associated with cigarette smoking?

a. Glaucoma

b. Increased sperm quality

c. Bladder cancer

d. Eczema

Question 11: A chronic cough lasts longer than:

a. 3 weeks

b. 1 month

c. 6 months
d. 1 year

Question 12: The ‘freezing phenomenon’ is a cardinal feature of?

a.Parkinson’s disease

b. Alzheimer’s disease

c. A CVA

d. Bell’s palsy

Question 13: When administered at the beginning of an attack, oxygen therapy may help this kind of headache?

a. Tension

b. Migraine

c. Cluster

d. Stress

Question 14: Which ethnic group has the highest lung cancer incidence and mortality rates?

a. African American men

b. Scandinavian men and women

c. Caucasian women

d. Asian men

Question 15: The most significant precipitating event leading to otitis media with effusion is:

a. Pharyngitis

b. Allergies

c. Viral upper respiratory infection (URI)

d. Perforation of the eardrum

Question 16:  Samuel is going to the dentist for some work and must take endocarditis prophylaxis because of his history of:

a. Severe asthma.
b. A common valvular lesion.
c. Severe hypertension.
d. A previous coronary artery bypass graft (CABG).

Question 17: A 34-year-old patient was treated for a urinary tract infection (UTI) and has not responded to antibiotic therapy. Which of the following actions should be taken next?
a. Send a urine specimen for microscopy looking for fungal colonies.
b. Increase the dose of antibiotic.
c. Order a cytoscopy.
d. Order a different antibiotic.

Question 18: Which statement best describes a carotid bruit?

a. It is felt with the middle three fingers over the carotid artery.
b. A bruit becomes audible when the lumen is narrowed to 1 mm or less.
c. A low-pitched bruit is a medical emergency.
d. The higher the pitch of the bruit, the higher the degree of stenosis.

Question 19: Which statement is true regarding chloasma, the ‘mask of pregnancy’?

a. It is caused by a decrease in the melanocyte-stimulating hormone duringpregnancy.

b. This condition only occurs on the face.

c. Exposure to sunlight will even out the discoloration.

d. It is caused by increased levels of estrogen and progesterone.

Question 20: Simon presents with alopecia areata with well-circumscribed patches of hair loss on the crown of his head. How do you respond when he asks you the cause?

a. “You must be under a lot of stress lately.”
b. “It is hereditary. Did your father experience this also?”
c. “The cause is unknown, but we suspect it is due to an immunologic mechanism.”
d. “We’ll have to do some tests.”

(NR511 Week4 Midterm Exam Version1)

Question 21: A blood pressure (BP) of 150/90 is considered:

a. Stage 2 hypertension

b. Hypertensive

c. Normal in healthy older adults

d. Acceptable if the patient has DM

Question 22: When teaching post MI patients about their NTG tablets, theclinician should stress that the tablets should remain in thelight-resistant bottle in which they are packaged and shouldnot be put in another pill box or remain in areas that are orcould become warm and humid. Once opened, the bottlemust be dated and discarded after how many months?

a. 1 month

b. 3 months

c. 6 months

d. As long as the tablets are kept in this special bottle, they will last forever

Question 23: Your patient has decided to try to quit smoking with Chantix. You are discussing his quit date, and he will begin taking the medicine tomorrow. When should he plan to quit smoking?

a. He should stop smoking today.

b. He should stop smoking tomorrow.

c. His quit date should be in 1 week.

d. He will be ready to quit after the Frst 30 days

Question 24: When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval to round shapes. What do you suspect they are?

a. Spores

c. Pseudohyphae
b. Leukocytes

d. Epithelial cells

Question 25: The hallmark of an absence seizure is:

a. No activity at all.
b. A blank stare.
c. Urine is usually voided involuntarily.
d. The attack usually lasts several minutes.

Question 26: Which medication used for scabies is safe for children 2 months and older?

a. Permethrin cream

b. Lindane

c. Crotamiton lotion and cream

d. Ivermectin

Question 27: The clinician is seeing a patient complaining of red eye. The clinician suspects conjunctivitis. The presence of mucopurulent discharge suggests which type of conjunctivitis?

a. Viral conjunctivitis

b. Keratoconjunctivitis

c. Bacterial conjunctivitis
d. Allergic conjunctivitis

Question 28: Gabby, aged 22, has Bell’s palsy on the right side of her face. Her mouth is distorted, and she is concerned about permanent paralysis and pain. What do you tell her?

a. “Most patients have complete recovery in a few weeks to a few months.”
b. “Unfortunately, you’ll probably have a small amount of residual damage.”
c. “Don’t worry, I’ll take care of everything.”
d. “You may have a few more episodes over the course of your lifetime but no permanent damage.”

Question 29: How often should drug levels be monitored when a seizure medication has controlled the seizures and the drug level is adequate

a. Every 3 months
b. Every 6 months
c. Annually
d. Whenever there is a problem

Question 30:  Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention?

a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary

Question 31: The result of the patient’s 24-hour urine for protein was 4.2 g/day. The clinician should take which of the following actions?

a. Repeat the test.
b. Refer to a nephrologist.
c. Measure the serum protein.
d. Obtain a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.

Question 32:  Which cranial nerve is afected in a patient with acerebrovascular accident who has difficulty chewing?

a. CN V

b. CN VII

c. CN IX

d. CN X

Question 33: Which of the following diagnostic tests should be ordered for a patient suspected of having bladder cancer?
a. KUB (kidneys, ureter, bladder) x-ray

b. Cystoscopy with biopsy

c. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
d. Urine tumor marker (NMP22)

Question 34: The “B” in the ABCDEs of assessing skin cancer represents:

a. Biopsy.

b. Best practice.

c. Boundary.
d. Border irregularity.

(NR511 Week4 Midterm Exam Version1)

Question 35: Which statement is true regarding driving and patients with a seizure disorder?

a. Once diagnosed with a seizure disorder, patients mustnever drive again.

b. After being seizure free for 6 months, patients may drive.

c. Each state has diferent laws governing driving forindividuals with a seizure disorder.

d. These persons may drive but never alone.

Question 36: Which high-density lipoprotein (HDL) level is considered cardioprotective?

a. Greater than 30

b. Greater than 40

c. Greater than 50
d. Greater than 60

Question 37: The most common etiologic organism for community-acquired pneumonia is:
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Beta hemolytic streptococcus
C. Mycoplasma
D. Methicillin resistant staphylococcus 

Question 38: Sandra has palpitations that occur with muscle twitching, paresthesia, and fatigue. What specific diagnostic test might help determine the cause?

a. Serum calcium

b. Electrocardiogram (ECG)

c. Thyroid-stimulating hormone test

d. Complete blood cell count

Question 39: A patient presents to the clinician with a sore throat, fever of 100.7?F, and tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. The clinician suspects strep throat and performs a rapid strep test that is negative. What would the next step be?

a. The patient should be instructed to rest and increase fluid intake as the infection is most likely viral and will resolve without antibiotic treatment.
b. Because the patient does not have strep throat, the clinician should start broad spectrum antibiotics in order to cover the offending pathogen.
c. A throat culture should be performed to confirm the results of the rapid strep test.
d. The patient should be treated with antibiotics for strep throat as the rapid strep test is not very sensitive.

Question 40: Patients with acute otitis media should be referred to a specialist in which of the following situations?
a. Concurrent vertigo or ataxia
b. Failed closure of a ruptured tympanic membrane
c. If symptoms worsen after 3 or 4 days of treatment
d. All of the above

Question 41: Which of the following tests is most useful in determining renal function in a patient suspected of chronic renal failure (CRF)?
a. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine
b. Electrolytes
c. Creatinine clearance
d. Urinalysis

Question 42: Marci has a wart on her hand. She says she  heard something about “silver duct tape therapy.” What do you tell her about his?

a. It is an old wives’ tale.
b. It is used as a last resort.
c. Salicylic acid is more effective.
d. It is a simple treatment that should be tried first.

Question 43: What is the first-line recommended treatment against Group A b-hemolytic streptococci (GABHS), the most common cause of bacterial pharyngitis?
a. Penicillin

b. Quinolone

c. Cephalosporin
d. Macrolide

Question 44: Which of the following is an example of sensorineural hearing loss?

a. Perforation of the tympanic membrane

b. Otosclerosis

c. Cholesteatoma
d. Presbycusis

Question 45: Which of the following is “a linear crack extending from the epidermis to the dermis?”

a. An ulcer

b. A fissure

c. Lichenification
d. An excoriation

(NR511 Week4 Midterm Exam Version1)

Question 46: A 65-year-old man presents to the clinician with complaints of increasing bilateral peripheral vision loss, poor night visio0n, and frequent prescription changes that started 6 months previously. Recently, he has also been seeing halos around lights. The clinician suspects chronic open-angle glaucoma. Which of the following statements is true concerning the diagnosis of chronic open-angle glaucoma?

a. The presence of increased intraocular pressure measured by tonometry is definitive for the diagnosis of open-angle glaucoma.
b. The clinician can definitively diagnosis open-angle glaucoma based on the subjective complaints of the patient.
c. Physical diagnosis relies on goniscopic evaluation of the angle by an ophthalmologist.
d. Early diagnosis is essential in order to reverse any damage that has occurred to the optic nerve.

Question 47: The majority of HSV-1 and HSV-2 infections are asymptomatic so that only which elevated antibody titer shows evidence of previous infection?

a. IgA

b. IgE

c. IgG
d. IgM

Question 48: A patient is seen with a sudden onset of ±ank painaccompanied by nausea, vomiting, and diaphoresis. Inaddition to nephrolithiasis, which of the following should beadded to the list of diferential diagnoses?

a. Pancreatitis

b. Peptic ulcer disease

c. Diverticulitis

d. All of the above

Question 49: Which of the following is abundant in the heart and rapidly rises in the bloodstream in the presence of heart failure, making it a good diagnostic test?

a. B-type natriuretic peptide

b. C-reactive protein

c. Serum albumin

d. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

Question 50: You are doing a cerumen extraction and touch the external meatus of your patient’s ear. He winces and starts coughing. What is the name of this reflex?

a. Baker phenomenon

b. Arnold reflex

c. cough reflex

d. Tragus reflex

 
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MANAGED CARE & ACCOUNTABLE CARE ORGANIZATIONS

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MANAGED CARE & ACCOUNTABLE CARE ORGANIZATIONS

(MANAGED CARE & ACCOUNTABLE CARE ORGANIZATIONS)

Assignment Overview (MANAGED CAR)There are various types of plans consumers can select. MCOs, HMOs, PPOs, POSs, or ACOs are the most common ones; however they all supply various benefits and drawbacks. Consumers (patients) have the right to choose the type of plan that best fits their needs. In fact, health care is a consumer-driven industry and as health care costs have continued to increase, consumer-driven health plans (CDHP) have become the next new thing (after managed care) (Fronstin & MacDonald, 2008). As a health care leader, it is vital that you understand the differences in these plans.

Fronstin, P. & MacDonald, J. (2008). Consumer- Driven Health Plans: Are they Working. Retrieved from http://online.wsj.com/ad/employeebenefits-consumer_driven_plans.html

Case AssignmentFor the Module 2 Case Assignment, conduct additional research as needed and prepare a 3- to 4-page comparative essay. Your comparative analysis should include a detailed comparative chart (see example at the following source: https://philsblogspace.files.wordpress.com/2012/10/eco-chart.jpg?w=1400). In your comparative analysis and chart, you are to evaluate and discuss:

  1. The key features, differences, and disadvantages between MCOs, HMOs, PPOs, POSs, and ACOs.
  2. The key features of a Consumer-Driven Health Care Plan (CDHP).
  3. The future of CDHPs, MCOs, HMOs, PPOs, POSs, and ACOs.

You are to support your analysis and views with at least four scholarly references (i.e., peer-reviewed journal).

For additional information on how to write a comparative analysis, review the following source: https://writingcenter.fas.harvard.edu/pages/how-write-comparative-analysis

Assignment Expectations (MANAGED CARE & ACCOUNTABLE CARE ORGANIZATIONS)

  1. Conduct additional research to gather sufficient information to justify/support your proposal.
  2. Limit your response to a maximum of 4 pages.
  3. Support your proposal with at least 4 peer-reviewed articles. Use the following link for additional information on how to recognize peer-reviewed journals: http://www.angelo.edu/services/library/handouts/peerrev.php.
  4. You may use the following source to assist in your formatting your assignment: https://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/560/01/.
 
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Transcript Analysis Experience

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Transcript Analysis Experience

(Transcript Analysis Experience)

With this assignment I just need the transcript written no video or recording is needed

HMSV B280

MICRO-LEVEL HUMAN SERVICES INTERVENTIONS

Mock Helping Session/Transcript Analysis Experience

125 POINTS

____________________________________________________________________

To complete this assignment you will need to video record yourself providing a mock helping

session with a “client.” The session must be a minimum of 20 minutes and no longer than 25

minutes. Your instructions:

1. Choose a friend to role play “your client” and develop a “client profile” which includes:

● Background Information- Your “client’s” name and age, as well as an explanation

discussing the “client’s presenting problem” and the purpose of the meeting. Include this

information at the beginning of your Transcript Analysis Paper.

2. Preliminary Skill-Tuning In:

● Consider your “client’s” thoughts, feelings, and issues about the helping session. Based

on your “client’s” presenting problem, consider your own thoughts and feelings about

your “client” and “his/her problem.” Include this information at the beginning of your

Transcript Analysis Paper.

3. Carefully review the Work Phase Sessional Skills (Ch. 5) in preparation for recording your

helping session. During your helping session, you and “your client” cannot read from a script,

and as “The Helper” you must demonstrate the following skills:

-An empathic attitude and genuineness

-Active listening

-Beginning Sessional Skills

-Middle Sessional Skills

-Ending/Transition Sessional Skills

-Open Ended Questions

4. Next, transcribe the entire helping session. This includes everything you say and everything

your “client” says.

5. Transcript Analysis: Then, go back to the beginning of your transcription and identify the

specific skills demonstrated throughout each of your responses during your helping session. For

example:

Helper:

“You seem really upset by your son’s fight yesterday. Can you tell me more

about what’s upsetting you?”

Displaying understanding of the client’s feelings; Open-ended question

Client:

“All hell broke loose after that fight. Mrs. Lewis is furious because he gave her

son a black eye, and she is threatening to call the police on me. She complained

to the landlord, and he’s threatening to throw me out if the kids don’t

straighten up. I tried to talk to Frankie about it, but I got nowhere. He just

screamed at me and ran out of the house. I’m really afraid he has done it this

time, and I’m feeling sick about the whole thing. Where will I go if they kick me

out? I can’t afford another place. And you know the cops gave Frankie a

warning last time. I’m scared about what will happen if Mrs. Lewis does

complain. I just don’t know what to do.”

Helper:

It really does sound like quite a mess; no wonder you feel up against the wall.

Look, maybe it would help if we looked at one problem at a time. Mrs. Lewis is

very angry, and you need to deal with her. Your landlord is important, too, and

we should think about what you might be able to say to him to get him to back

off while you try to deal with Frankie on this. And I guess that’s the big

question, what can you say to Frankie since this has made things rougher for

the two of you? Mrs. Lewis, the landlord, and Frankie—where should we start?

Partializing the client’s concerns; Open-ended question

5. Finally, write a short critique of yourself (2-4 paragraphs), and address the following

questions:

● What did you do well with during your helping session?

● What do you think you could have done differently to improve your work with your

“client?”

Submission Notes/Instructions:

● Upload your Helping Session video using the Voice Thread link on Blackboard.

● Once your Transcript Analysis is complete, use the appropriate link on Blackboard to

upload your paper.

● Both your Helping Session Video Upload and your Transcript Analysis Paper must be

 
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Common Screening Tests During Pregnancy

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MN576 Discussion Board: Common Screening Tests During Pregnancy – Peer Response

(Common Screening Tests During Pregnancy)

No plagiarism please.

Will need minimum of 150 words for each response, APA Style, double spaced, times new roman, font 12, and and Include: (1 reference for each response within years 2015-2018) with intext citations.

Discuss the most common screening test and diagnostics used throughout pregnancy and the purpose of the tests. When during pregnancy are tests performed and what is the protocol when an abnormal test or diagnostic is found?

Peer Resp#1

Health care provider may recommend a variety of screenings, tests and imaging techniques during a pregnancy. These tests are designed to provide information about the health of your baby and may help you optimize your child’s prenatal care and development (American Pregnancy Association, 2018). Genetic screening can help diagnose the potential for certain genetic disorders before birth. First-trimester screening is a combination of fetal ultrasound and maternal blood testing. This screening process can help determine the risk of the fetus having certain birth defects. Second trimester prenatal screening may include several blood tests called multiple markers. These markers provide information about the risk of having a baby with certain genetic conditions or birth defects. The ultrasounds can be performed at different times during the pregnancy to check for fetal growth, estimate the due date and look for any structural abnormalities in the baby. Additional testing during pregnancy may include amniocentesis, chronic villus, sample (CVS) and fetal monitoring glucose testing and Group B strep culture. Many genetic abnormalities can be diagnosed before birth (American Pregnancy Association, 2018) . Therefore, the PCP or midwife may recommend genetic testing during pregnancy in case there is a family history of genetic disorders. other reason may also be to have genetic screening when the fetus or baby has a genetic abnormality.

Depending on the situation if an abnormal screening test comes the patient should be aware of and counsel the risk of having the baby and the percentage of survival of the fetus. It will be up to the parents of the unborn child to decide whether they should continue with the pregnancy. I have seen a patient who was advised to end the pregnancy because of the high risk of the death of the mother. depending on the situation, some parents may choose to abort the baby.  for example, this who recently found that she was 8—9 weeks pregnant via ultrasound for the fifth time, the patient who had 3 c sections 4 living children and was pregnant for the fifth her last baby was 10 months old. The physician had to explain the high risk of having a hysterectomy right after given birth and risk of bleeding to death.

Peer Resp#2

Pregnancy is a cascade of miracles occurring one after another.  The development of a growing embryo to a fetus to a full-term infant involves constant replication of cells and therefore any delivery of a healthy baby is truly a miracle.  Gestation typically last 40 weeks and is broken down into trimesters (i.e. 1st – 0-12 weeks, 2nd – 13-28 weeks, 3rd – 29 weeks to delivery).  Women typically request pregnancy testing, either at home or at their primary care provider’s office, when they have either missed a menstrual cycle or are having symptoms of pregnancy (i.e. nausea, breast tenderness, etc.).  These tests are designed to measure human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG), which is a hormone secreted by the placenta once a fertilized egg implants within the uterine lining (Mayo Clinic, 2018).

Because pregnancy is not a benign condition, many screening tests can be completed in order to identify any potential issues with the growing fetus (i.e. birth defects, low weight, etc.) at the earliest possible stage.

During the first trimester, the following tests can be ordered:

  1. Maternal blood screen to test for HCG and pregnancy associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A).  If either of these results are elevated, there can be an increased probability for chromosomal disorders. Blood typing also occurs at this time and if the mother is RH negative will need a Rhogam injection at 28 weeks and immediately after childbirth.
  2. Ultrasound in the first trimester can be used to look for anomalies such as fluid behind the fetus’ neck or presence of a nasal bone and is considered the most accurate method to determine estimated delivery date (EDD).  These two screening methods can accurately provide evidence of Trisomy 18 or 21 (Down Syndrome) (John Hopkins Medicine, 2016).

During the second trimester the following tests can be ordered:

  1. Between 15-20 weeks, a Quad screen tests for the presence of 4 proteins (alpha-fetoprotein (AFP), HCG, Estriol and Inhibin-A.
  2. Between 18-20 weeks, an anomaly ultrasound can be completed to determine size of the fetus and identification of any birth defects (Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, 2017).

During the third trimester, the following tests can be ordered:

  1. Oral glucose tolerance test (OGGT) to determine whether the patient has developed gestational diabetes (GDM) can be completed during the 24-28 weeks.  If found to have GDM, patient will need to be educated on diet changes and potentially get started on metformin.
  2. Group beta strep (GBS) can be tested for during the 35-37 weeks.  If positive, IV antibiotics will need to be administered prior to delivery of the child.
  3. Tdap for anyone who will be in contact with the infant to protect against pertussis and the influenza vaccine to protect against influenza.

If any of the genetic testing results in an anomaly, further diagnostic testing can take place.  These types of additional testing include amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling (CVS) and can help differentiate between the exact genetic anomaly exists (Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, 2017).

 
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Influential Leadership Dynamics Analysis

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Influential Leadership Dynamics Analysis

(Influential Leadership Dynamics Analysis)

How Does This Leader Leverage Power, Politics, Networking, Or Negotiation In Order To Influence People?

Unit focuses on how leaders influence people by using—and potentially abusing—power, politics, networking, and negotiation. For this unit’s discussion forum, your initial discussion post should include two parts:

Part 1: link to video clip
Before you post in the discussion board, locate a video clip that demonstrates a leader’s influence through the use—or abuse—of power, politics, networking, or negotiation. Once you identify a video clip, be sure to copy the link and insert it into your discussion board post. To locate a video clip, you may use either YouTube or the Films on Demand database through the Online Library.

You may choose any leader for this video clip; it does not need to be the leader that serves as the topic for your research paper. Begin your discussion post by (a) providing the name of the leader and the title of the video clip and (b) posting a link to the video clip. The video clip should be less than three minutes in length. If it is longer than three minutes, feel free to post the link, but please indicate the time-stamp for a three-minute window within the video, so your professor and peer learners may view just that three-minute window. (Please demonstrate respect to your professor and peers by refraining from video clips that include vulgar language or behavior.)

Part 2: Discussion
Analyze this video clip as the basis for your discussion board post. How does this leader leverage power, politics, networking, or negotiation in order to influence people? In your opinion, does this leader use these strategies ethically? Explain. Evaluate the overall effectiveness of this leader’s influence. How does this leader’s influence—as well as his or her power, politics, networking, or negotiation—impact other people?

 
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