Question
1. During the plateau phase of the sexual response cycle:
a. there is an initial rapid increase in physiological arousal.
b. males are temporarily unable to have an orgasm.
c. males and females experience pleasurable involuntary contractions.
d. the physiological arousal that was initiated in the previous phase continues to build.
2. Often in personality research, ______________ is used to identify clusters of specific behaviors that are so highly associated with one another that they are assumed to be due to a single trait or basic dimension of personality.
a. intuition
b. component analysis
c. factor analysis
d. a theory
3. According to ______________, the global appearance of the Big Five personality factors is due to the fact that these traits increased our chances for survival and reproduction.
a. evolutionary personality theory
b. social cognitive theory
c. social learning theory
d. the cognitive-affective personality system
4. Hans Eysenck’s two-factor model of personality is unique compared to other trait models of personality in that it:
a. is derived from the use of both factor analysis and intuition.
b. has been found to predict specific behaviors even better than more narrow trait measures.
c. postulates a possible biological basis for his traits.
d. is the only model that includes extraversion and neuroticism.
5. Hans Eysenck believes that there are specific biological factors that are responsible for traits.
Specifically, he asserts that people who score high on a measure of ______________ have brains that are chronically over aroused.
a. neuroticism
b. introversion
c. agreeableness
d. openness
6. Which of the following provides the best definition of the concept of reciprocal determinism?
a. A person can impact the environment and the environment can impact the person.
b. The person, a person’s behavior, and the environment can all influence one another.
c. Behavior is motivated and triggered by strong internal psychic forces.
d. Most behavior is determined by the complex interaction of various traits.
7. All of the following concepts are associated with researcher Julian Rotter EXCEPT:
a. expectancy.
b. behavioral signatures.
c. reinforcement value.
d. locus of control.
8. Which of the following concepts is most concerned with the amount of personal power or influence we feel that we can exert in our lives?
a. expectancy
b. self-monitoring
c. reinforcement value
d. locus of control
9. Ralph tends to be a rather passive person. Though he is happy and content with himself, he doesn’t really believe that his actions make much of a difference in the world. For instance, he doesn’t vote because he assumes that most governments are run by a few powerful people and there is very little he can do to change things. Ralph would most accurately be described as having:
a. low self-esteem.
b. an external locus of control.
c. high self-monitoring skills.
d. high self-efficacy.
10. Albert Bandura’s concept of self-efficacy specifically refers to people’s:
a. beliefs about the general amount of control they have in their lives.
b. tendencies to behave in ways consistent with their self-concepts.
c. beliefs about their abilities to perform behaviors needed to achieve specific outcomes.
d. tendencies to want to feel positively about themselves.
11. ______________ social influence involves conforming in order to be accepted by others or to avoid social rejection, whereas ____________ social influence occurs when people conform to the behaviors or opinions of others because they believe that these others have accurate knowledge and know what is “right.”
a. Normative; informational
b. Normative; facilitative
c. Informational; normative
d. Facilitative; informational
12. A young child decides to dress more like his peers in order to avoid their rejection and teasing. This child is best demonstrating the effect of:
a. self-serving bias.
b. normative social influence.
c. stereotype threat.
d. groupthink.
13. In subsequent experiments examining the factors that influence conformity, Solomon Asch determined that:
a. conformity continuously increased as group size increased.
b. conformity increased as group size increased from 1 to about 9 or 10, but further increases in group size did not increase conformity.
c. conformity increased as group size increased from 1 to about 4 or 5, but further increases in group size did not increase conformity.
d. conformity was typically unchanged as group size increased from 1 to about 4 or 5, but further
increases in group size served to increase conformity.
14. Participants in Stanley Milgram’s study on obedience were first told that the study was about the effect of:
a. group size on conformity
b. social roles on behavior
c. punishment on memory
d. shock on obedience
15. In his famous study examining obedience, Stanley Milgram found that the majority of his participants:
a. became uncomfortable early in the experiment and refused to give further shocks to the “Learner.”
b. became uncomfortable midway through the experiment and refused to administer any further
shocks when they learned of the “Learner’s” heart condition.
c. had no trouble administering the maximum 450 volts to the “Learner” because most of them
assumed that the shocks were not real.
d. administered the maximum 450 volts to the “Learner,” even though they were very distressed and upset doing so.
16. A person on campus walks up to you and asks if you would be willing to wear a ribbon to show support for her cause. Though the ribbon is a bit unattractive, it is small so you agree to wear it. After agreeing to this request, the solicitor then asks you if you would be willing to make a donation of $15. This example best demonstrates the persuasion technique called:
a. the door-in-the-face.
b. the foot-in-the-door.
c. the norm of reciprocity.
d. lowballing.
17. The principle of _______________ specifically refers to how the average opinion of groups of likeminded individuals tends to become more extreme when they discuss an issue.
a. group disparity
b. groupthink
c. group polarization
d. group differentiation
18. A phenomenon called ________________ refers to how repeated exposure to a stimulus tends to increase people’s liking for it.
a. the proximity effect
b. redundant attraction
c. the mere exposure effect
d. repetitive affiliation
19. A couple has been together for several years and they are now deciding whether to end their
relationship. Based on John Thibaut and Harold Kelley’s (1967) social exchange theory, one of the primary factors that will affect their decision is:
a. the amount of personal self-disclosure that takes place in their relationship.
b. their mate preference patterns, which are the product of learning and culturally defined roles.
c. the relative rewards and costs that they experience when in the relationship.
d. their mate preference patterns, which have been shaped by evolutionary forces.
20. The text makes an important distinction between ____________, which refers to a negative attitude toward people based on their membership in a group, and ____________, which is concerned with actually treating people unfairly based on their group membership.
a. attribution; stereotype
b. stereotype; prejudice
c. prejudice; discrimination
d. prejudice; stereotype
21. The implicit association test is used specifically to assess:
a. self-reported prejudice.
b. the amount of stereotype threat.
c. the physiological arousal associated with prejudice.
d. covert prejudice
22. The tendency to prefer people in a group to which we belong and to attribute more positive qualities to people in this group is called:
a. groupthink.
b. group polarization.
c. in-group favoritism.
d. stereotyping.
23. An inherited characteristic that produces a particular response when an organism is exposed to a particular stimulus and is common to all members of a species is called a(n):
a. motive.
b. drive.
c. incentive.
d. instinct.
24. According to Clark Hull’s drive theory of motivation, various drives are produced:
a. by specific instincts that are common to both humans and animals.
b. when our growth needs are not being met.
c. when we value a goal and expect that certain behaviors will lead to its accomplishment.
d. when there is a physiological disruption of homeostasis.
25. One potential criticism of Abraham Maslow’s need hierarchy is that people may still pursue their need for ___________, even when presumably lower needs, such as the need for _____________, have not yet been satisfied or met.
a. security; love and affiliation
b. esteem and the respect of others; self-actualization
c. food and water; security
d. love and affiliation; security
26. If you were to give hungry animals an injection of _________, they would most likely stop feeding or reduce the size of their meals.
a. androgen
b. cholecystokinin (CCK)
c. glucose
d. estrogen
27. Scientists learned about how leptin regulates food intake and weight by studying:
a. people with bulimia.
b. people with anorexia.
c. people who have had their stomachs removed.
d. genetically obese mice.
28. Research conducted by April Fallon and Paul Rozin (1985) demonstrated that college women
____________ how thin they should be to conform to men’s preferences, and that men _____________ how bulky they should be to conform to women’s preferences.
a. overestimated; overestimated
b. underestimated; overestimated
c. overestimated; underestimated
d. underestimated; underestimated
29. Which of the following correctly lists the “Big Five” personality traits?
a. Outgoingness, conscientiousness, excitability, agreeableness, and nervousness
b. Openness, candidness, excitability, apprehensiveness, and nervousness
c. Openness, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism
d. Outgoingness, candidness, extraversion, affability, and neuroticism
30. When treating people with conversion hysteria, Sigmund Freud noticed that people with this disorder often appeared to improve when:
a. they sublimated their sexual and aggressive energies.
b. their superegos were strengthened.
c. their defense mechanisms became more balanced.
d. they re-experienced traumatic memories and feelings.
31. Having an authority figure who is physically close and who is perceived as legitimate are factors that are both most strongly associated with:
a. conformity.
b. obedience.
c. minority influence.
d. social facilitation.
32. The ego functions primarily at the ___________ level of mind and operates according to the
_____________.
a. conscious; reality principle
b. preconscious; pleasure principle
c. preconscious; reality principle
d. conscious; unconscious mind
33. During a conversation with a friend, Al starts to get angry, but this is an emotion that he considers inappropriate and childish. As a result, instead of noticing his own anger, he unknowingly starts to believe that his friend is becoming angry and excited, even though she is doing no such thing. This example best demonstrates the defense mechanism of:
a. reaction formation.
b. sublimation.
c. projection.
d. displacement.
34. The humanistic concept of self-actualization refers to the process of:
a. gaining and preserving a positive self-image.
b. believing that you can take the steps needed to achieve desired outcomes.
c. realizing our full human potential.
d. maintaining self-identity through self-consistency and congruence.
35. Research on Playboy magazine centerfolds and Miss America contestants between the 1950s and 1980s has revealed a trend for a _______________ “ideal” body shape for women.
a. thinner and more realistic
b. thinner and increasingly unrealistic
c. larger and increasingly unrealistic
d. larger and more realistic
36. People with the eating disorder called ____________ have an intense fear of being fat and severely restrict their food intake, often to the point of starvation.
a. anorexia nervosa
b. bulimia
c. digestive deficiency
d. obesity phobia
37. Julie frequently eats a great deal of food when she gets emotionally upset. The last time she started to feel depressed, she ate two large bags of potato chips, a half-gallon of ice cream, and several slices of pizza, all in one sitting. After she eats this way, she usually takes several laxatives to help her purge all this food. Despite this eating behavior, Julie’s weight is about average for someone of her height and age. Julie would most likely be diagnosed:
a. with anorexia nervosa.
b. as being dangerously underweight.
c. with both anorexia and bulimia.
d. with bulimia.
38. The area of the cortex that appears to be heavily involved in the process of emotion regulation is:
a. the parietal lobe.
b. the prefrontal cortex.
c. the right hemisphere.
d. the occipital lobe.
39. The fight-or-flight response in both animals and humans is produced in part by the:
a. sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system.
b. parasympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system.
c. somatic nervous system.
d. central nervous system.
40. According to the _____________ theory of emotion, people infer their emotional states by observing their bodily reactions.
a. facial feedback
b. fundamental emotional patterns
c. James-Lange
d. Cannon-Bard
41. The ___________ theory of emotion asserts that the thalamus sends messages directly to the cortex and that these messages determine the experience of emotion. The physiological arousal that accompanies the emotion is determined by separate messages sent from the thalamus to the body’s internal organs.
a. Cannon-Bard
b. James-Lange
c. facial feedback
d. somatic
42. Research testing the facial feedback hypothesis has found that when people hold a pen in their teeth, presumably activating the muscles involved in __________, they later rate themselves as feeling ________ happy than people who have been asked to hold a pen with their lips.
a. surprise; more
b. anger; less
c. sadness; less
d. smiling; more
43. According to the expectancy value theory of motivation, the worth that an individual places on a goal is often called the _________ value.
a. deficiency
b. incentive
c. growth
d. reinforcement
44. In the cognitive-affective personality system (CAPS), concepts such as self-efficacy and locus of control would most likely be placed in which of the following categories?
a. encoding strategies
b. expectancies and beliefs
c. goals and values
d. affects
45. The NEO-PI measure of personality was developed using what is called the ____________ approach to personality scale construction.
a. trait
b. rational-theoretical
c. behavioral
d. empirical
46. Cross-cultural research has found that people who live in _____________ cultures typically view their personalities as being relatively stable and assume that the environment is changeable. In contrast, people  from _____________ cultures tend to view the environment as fixed and believe that their personalities are alterable.
a. tight; complex
b. individualistic; collectivistic
c. complex; simple
d. collectivistic; tight
47. Hans Eysenck’s theory of personality is most similar to which of the following approaches to
personality?
a. Big Five personality theorists
b. Raymond Cattell’s 16-factor theory
c. Carl Rogers’ humanistic theory
d. Albert Bandura’s social learning theory
48. According to the _______________, people tend to underestimate the impact of situational factors and overestimate the impact of personal factors when explaining other people’s behaviors.
a. self-serving bias
b. fundamental attribution error
c. self-perception theory
d. self-fulfilling prophecy
49. When explaining our own behavior, _____________ occurs when we make more personal attributions for successes and more situational attributions for failures.
a. the self-serving bias
b. social facilitation
c. attributional polarization
d. the fundamental attribution error
50. Norman Triplett accurately predicted that bicycle-racing times would be faster when individuals raced ____________. This effect is currently explained by the modern construct called _______________.
a. separately; the primacy effect
b. separately; cognitive dissonance
c. in groups; social facilitation
d. in groups; group polarization
51. According to the text, _________ are sets of norms that specify how people in a particular social position are expected to behave.
a. social norms
b. social standards
c. social roles
d. social rules
52. The Behavioral Activation System:
a. is activated in response to potential rewards.
b. releases endorphins that limit our experience of physiological pain.
c. becomes active when we pursue a medium-difficulty challenge, but not easy or impossible
challenges.
d. is involved in the avoidance of stimuli that elicit pain.
53. The tendency for members of a group to suspend critical thinking because they are striving for agreement is specifically called:
a. normative social influence.
b. the norm of reciprocity.
c. groupthink.
d. group polarization.
54. Fat cells in the body actively regulate the processes of food intake and weight regulation by secreting the hormone ____________, which is known to decrease appetite.
a. leptin
b. estrogen
c. androgen
d. glucose

55. Which of the following conclusions regarding the results from obedience studies is most accurate?
a. Contrary to popular beliefs, most people are followers who are inherently obedient.
b. Contrary to popular beliefs, most people appear to be very apathetic and cruel.
c. Obedience behavior appears to be more a product of personal characteristics than of situational
factors.
d. Obedience behavior appears to be more a product of situational factors than of personal
characteristics.
56. Initial research found that when the ventromedial hypothalamus (VMH) of rats was destroyed, the rats:
a. refused to eat, often to the point of starvation.
b. became gluttons and their body weights frequently doubled or tripled.
c. experienced the normal signals of satiety.
d. began eating normally.
57. Which of the following lists the four phases of sexual response, in correct order?
a. excitement, plateau, resolution, orgasm
b. excitement, plateau, orgasm, resolution
c. excitement, orgasm, plateau, resolution
d. plateau, excitement, resolution, orgasm
58. The concept called _______________ specifically asserts that prejudicial attitudes create fear and self consciousness among stereotyped group members that they will confirm other people’s negative attitudes.
a. deindividuation
b. the self-fulfilling prophecy
c. stereotype threat
d. the out-group homogeneity bias
59. Which of the following is one of the two primary ways that the bystander effect can inhibit people from helping others?
a. reciprocal apathy
b. the self-fulfilling prophecy
c. diffusion of responsibility
d. the fundamental attribution error
60.According to the text, bystanders are most likely to help individuals who are:
a. judged as being responsible for their problems.
b. attractive.
c. perceived as being similar.
d. in a good mood.

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Question description

This project is to be done in a group to develop an evidence based research project, based on an approved PICO question. Utilizing the PICO question, evaluate the evidence that supports the effectiveness or lack of effectiveness of this intervention for this individual patient’s needs and preferences. The hierarchy of evidence must be used to support the strength of evidence for your intervention. Based on the evidence, a clinical decision must be made. Students will be assigned to a group at the beginning of the semester. Refer to grading rubric below. The project will be discussed throughout the semester. Poster Presentations will be at the end of the semester and will be evaluated according to the presentation grading rubric provided by your professor

Case Study: Ms. Smith has been asked to schedule an appointment for her baby’s 18 month needle (MMR). She is very concerned about this as she has heard reports that the MMR needle causes autism. She asks you whether or not there is a link between the MMR vaccine and an increased risk of autism in children?
P – 18 month old child
I – MMR vaccine
C – no MMR vaccine
O – autism / autistic spectrum disorder

Please follow guidelines

Evidence Based Practice Project Evaluation Criteria

A. Presentation ……………………………………………………………………………………………….90%

1. Introduction of the case study………………………………………………………………………………..5

2. PICO question Formatting Fit between PICO and case study……………………………………………………5

3. Identify Proposed Nursing Intervention…………………………………………………….……………….10

4. Strength of Evidence…………………………………………………………………………………………30

a. Levels of Hierarchy of Evidence discussed (level 1-7) (see page 58 in text)

5. Clinical decision making ……………………………………………………………………………………30

a. Decision supported by evidence discussed

b. Decision answers the PICO question and addresses case study description

6. Poster and handout quality and detail……………………………………………………………………….10

B. Reference citations as per APA 6^th edition guidelines provided……………………………………………10%

Evidence Based Practice Project

Purposes:

1. To critically appraise nursing research that supports nursing practice.

2. To provide the opportunity to use group process skills to identify and investigate the empirical practice of clinical problem.

3. To integrate research findings into evidence-based practice.

4. To utilize teaching-learning principles in the presentation of this empirical data to classmates and other nursing colleagues.

As nurses, the ability to critically appraise and disseminate information is necessary to assure nursing practice that is scientifically sound.

General Guidelines

1. Students will work in groups.

2. Identify a patient that has been cared for in a clinical setting. Do not provide any identifying information.

3. Focus on a clinical problem this person has, e.g., hypertension, dyspnea, etc.

4. Identify a proposed nursing intervention for this problem for this individual patient.

5. Using a PICO question, evaluate the evidence that supports the effectiveness or lack of effectiveness of this intervention for this individual patient’s needs and preferences.

6. The Hierarchy of Evidence must be used to support the strength of evidence for your intervention.

7. Based on the evidence, what clinical decision should be made?

8. Grades will be assigned according to the Evidence-Based Project Evaluation Criteria.

9. Presentations will include the components listed in the Evidence-Based Project Evaluation Criteria.

10. Students are expected to work collaboratively and as a team with each other. Each student will complete peer evaluations for the other members in their group. Individual grades for this portion of the overall grade will be the average of the ratings given by the other group members

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Question description

eporting and Interpreting Liabilities

Introduction

Businesses finance the acquisition of their assets from three sources: profits generated through operations of the business, funds supplied by creditors (debt), or funds provided by owners (equity). The mixture of debt and equity that a business uses is called its capital structure. In this module, we will examine the basic concepts that affect liabilities.

Liabilities

Liabilities are the debts and obligations of an entity, which will require the probable future sacrifice of assets (Kimmel, Weygandt, & Kieso, 2009). Liabilities are classified on the balance sheet as either current or long term, depending upon when they are due. Current liabilities are the obligations of the organizations that are reasonably expected to be paid within 1 year of the balance sheet date or the operating cycle, whichever is longer. All liabilities not classified as current are considered to be long-term liabilities.

Current Liabilities

Typical current liabilities include accounts payable, accrued expenses, short-term notes payable, the current portion of long-term debt, salaries and wages payable, unearned revenues, interest payable, and taxes payable.

Long-Term Liabilities

Long-term liabilities are all obligations that are not classified as current and include notes payable, bonds payable, and other long-term debt instruments. Long-term liabilities that are maturing within one year are classified as current liabilities unless the maturing debt will be satisfied by incurring additional long-term debt. Accountants use present value concepts to determine the reported amounts of long-term liabilities. The liability is not reported at the amount of the total future payments but the amount of the present value of the future payments.

Notes payable may be included in current or long-term liabilities depending upon the nature of the note. A note payable is a formal written debt instrument that specifies the amount borrowed, when it must be repaid, and the interest rate associated with the debt. Notes payable will be classified as either current or long-term depending upon when they mature. Some types of notes, such as installment notes or mortgages, may have current portions and long-term portions shown on the balance sheet. Accountants must report the debt when it is incurred and the related interest expense as it accrues. Interest payable on a note is accounted for in a separate account from the note itself; the note payable should not be affected as interest expense accrues.

Time Value of Money

Long-term liabilities will be paid more than one year in the future and are generally subject to interest based upon the time value of money. The concept of the time value of money is that a dollar to be received in the future is worth less than a dollar available today (present value) and a dollar invested today will grow to a larger amount in the future (future value). To determine the future value of a known present amount, interest is added to the present value. To determine the present value of a known future amount, interest is backed out of a future amount. These concepts are applied either to a single payment or multiple recurring payments called annuities. Either tables or calculators can be used to determine present and future values. Bonds payable and some notes payable take into account the time value of money. Current liabilities are so short term in nature that the time value of money is not generally recognized when reporting current liabilities.

Bonds are debt instruments that corporations and government units issue when they borrow large amounts of money. After bonds have been issued, some bonds can be traded on established exchanges such as the New York Bond Exchange. The ability to sell a bond on the bond exchange is a significant advantage for creditors because it provides them with liquidity or the ability to convert their investments into cash.

Three types of events must be recorded over the life of a typical bond: (1) the receipt of cash when the bond is first sold, (2) the periodic payment of cash interest, and (3) the repayment of principal upon the maturity of the bond.

Bonds are sold at a discount whenever the coupon interest rate (stated rate) is less than the market rate of interest. A discount is the dollar amount of the difference between the par value of the bond and its selling price. The discount is recorded as a contra-liability when the bond is sold and is amortized over the life of the bond as an adjustment to interest expense.

Bonds are sold at a premium whenever the coupon interest rate is more than the market rate of interest. A premium is the dollar amount of the difference between the selling price of the bond and its par value. The premium is recorded as a liability when the bond is sold and is amortized over the life of the bond as an adjustment to interest expense. Bond discounts and premiums can be amortized using either the straight-line method or the effective-interest method. Under the straight-line method, a consistent amount of interest expense is incurred each period from the bond’s issuance until maturity in order to amortize the discount or premium to zero by the maturity date. Under the effective-interest method, interest expense is computed each period by multiplying the current amount of the bond liability by the market rate of interest when the bond was issued. Thus, the interest expense will change each period that the discount or premium is amortized.

Analysis

Review the available materials for the chapters covered this week, including the lecture, reading, publisher materials, demonstration problems and exercises at the end of the chapters. After reviewing these materials and attempting the assignment for the week, what challenges did you face? Do you have any questions on the material?Analysts use various tools to assess the financial health of corporations. One such tool is the debt-to-equity ratio. The debt-to-equity ratio (total liabilities divided by owners’ equity) compares the amount of capital supplied by creditors to the amount supplied by owners. It is a measure of a company’s debt capacity. Horngren’s Accounting, The Financial Chapters Read chapters 11 and 14.

Liabilities and the Statement of Cash Flows

Cash flows associated with transactions involving long-term creditors are reported in the financing activities section of the statement of cash flows. Interest expense is reported in the operating activities section.

Conclusion

The sources of funds for a corporation are classified as either debt funding or equity funding. An understanding of a company’s capital structure provides insight into the company’s strategy, needs, and solvency. Prior to investing in a company or lending to a company, investors and creditors will review the capital structure of a company and do a ratio analysis to compare the company to similar investments or credit opportunities.

References

Kieso, D., Weygandt, J., & Warfield, T. (2009). Intermediate accounting (3rd ed.). Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley and Sons, Inc.

Kimmel, P., Weygandt, J., & Kieso, D. (2009). Accounting: Tools for business decision making (3rd ed.). Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley and Sons, Inc.

Libby, R., Libby, P., & Short, D. (2004). Financial accounting (4th ed.). New York: McGraw-Hill/Irwin.

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