Discipline Based Literature Review.

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Discipline Based Literature Review.

(Discipline Based Literature Review.)

Need a six page paper on the following.

In this assignment you will choose three general topics of interest to you related to psychological assessment from the list below.

  • Infants and preschool-aged children
  • Children ages 5 through 12 years
  • Children with neurodevelopmental disorders
  • Neuropsychological assessment of adolescents
  • Children and adolescents with anxiety disorders
  • Children with attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder
  • Adolescents with attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder
  • Adults with attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder
  • Intellectual assessment of adults
  • Individuals with schizophrenia spectrum and other psychotic disorders
  • Individuals with obsessive-compulsive and related disorders
  • Individuals with intellectual disabilities
  • Individuals with autism spectrum disorders
  • Individuals with post-traumatic stress disorder
  • Individuals with depressive disorders
  • Individuals with neurocognitive disorders
  • Individuals with hearing impairments
  • Individuals with visual impairments
  • Gifted individuals
  • Individuals who have served in the military

Research five peer-reviewed articles in the Ashford University Library that were published within the last 15 years, including a minimum of one article for each of your three chosen topics. In your paper, begin with an introduction that describes the role of assessment in diagnosis and treatment. Using your researched articles, compare at least two psychological or educational tests and/or assessment procedures for each of the topics chosen. Analyze and describe the psychometric methodologies employed in the development and/or validation of the tests and/or assessment procedures associated with each of the three topics. Debate any relevant approaches to assessment of the constructs being evaluated by any tests and assessments you described. Include an analysis of any challenges related to assessing individuals from diverse social and cultural backgrounds for each of the three topics. Conclude by evaluating the ethical and professional issues that influence the interpretation of testing and assessment data. You may cite from your textbook to assist you in the development of your introduction and the conclusion of your paper; however, the textbook cannot count as one of the five required peer-reviewed articles.

  • Must begin with an introduction that describes the role of assessment in diagnosis and treatment.
  • Must address the topic of the paper with critical thought.
  • Must end with a conclusion that summarizes your evaluation addressing the current use of psychological tests and the role of assessment in diagnosis and treatment.
  • Must use at least five peer-reviewed sources published within the last 15 years, all of which come from the Ashford University Library.
  • Must document all sources in APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.
 
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Inductive And Deductive Arguments

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Assignment 3: Inductive and Deductive Arguments

(Inductive And Deductive Arguments)

In this assignment, you will apply key concepts covered in the module readings. You will identify the component parts of arguments and differentiate between various types of arguments such as inductive and deductive. You will then construct specific, original arguments.

There are two parts to the assignment. Complete both parts. The following is a summary of the assignment tasks.

Part 1

  • 1a: Identify Components of Arguments
    Identify the component parts of the argument, premises and conclusion, for the passages. Where applicable, highlight key words or phrases that identify a claim as a premise or a conclusion. Part 1a has three questions.
  • 1b: Identify Arguments as Inductive or Deductive
    Identify the arguments as inductive or deductive for given passages. Offer a brief explanation why each argument is either inductive or deductive. 1b has three questions.

Part 2

  • 2a: Argument Identification and Analysis
    In these longer text passages, identify the key components of each argument. For each argument, list the main conclusion and the reasons (or premises) that support the conclusion.
  • 2b: Constructing Original Arguments
    Construct one original inductive argument. Using 75–100 words, explain why the argument is an inductive one. Then, construct one original deductive argument. Using 75–100 words, explain why the argument is a deductive one.
  • 2c: Finding Native Argument Examples
    Find one example of an argument from contemporary media; this can be a short argument. Include or reproduce the original passage of the argument, paraphrase the conclusion(s), and identify the argument as either inductive or deductive. Using 75–100 words, explain why the argument is either inductive or deductive.

Submit your assignment in Word format. Apply APA standards to citation of sources. Use the following file naming convention: LastnameFirstInitial_M1_A3.doc. For example, if your name is John Smith, your document will be named SmithJ_M1_A3.doc.

By Wednesday, June 18, 2014, deliver your assignment to the M1: Assignment 3 Dropbox.

Assignment 3 Grading Criteria
Maximum Points
Identified and explained types and component parts of arguments displaying analysis and application of research.
24
Accurately identified key component parts of arguments in longer text passages, reflecting comprehension and critical thinking.
12
Constructed original inductive and deductive arguments demonstrating in-depth understanding of concepts.
30
Evaluated and explained instances from contemporary media to identify arguments as representative of inductive or deductive reasoning.
20
Wrote in a clear, concise, and organized manner; demonstrated ethical scholarship in accurate representation and attribution of sources; displayed accurate spelling, grammar, and punctuation.
14
Total:
100
 
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Evaluation Of Care Plan

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Evaluation Of Care Plan

(Evaluation Of Care Plan)

An evaluation of plan effectiveness is now due.  In the evaluation component of the Capstone project, you are expected to evaluate the effectiveness of the intervention.  Some questions you should seek answers to are: 1.What barriers might you anticipate when implementing the intervention as planned? 2.What visible signs of success would you look for (for example, reduced health issues)? Describe them.  The evaluation component of the final paper should describe your evaluation of the implementation. Include responses to points 1and 2 above. The evaluation component of the final Microsoft Word submission document should be a minimum of 2 pages.

The complete summary document should use the Mobilize, Assess, Plan, Implement, Track (MAP-IT) steps used in pulling together your project.

Over the past nine weeks, you selected an aggregate and conducted a risk assessment of its health, developed a care plan to address those health risks, planned an implement one intervention in a small group from the aggregate, and considered the effectiveness of the intervention on the health of the small group. It’s time now for you to present your final submission of this Capstone project.  Your final submission comprises the documentation of the work accomplished through your Capstone project, a Microsoft Word Document that contains the evaluation and summary, a Microsoft PowerPoint presentation highlighting the main aspects of the project including the key things learned during the 10 weeks of working with this project.

The summary document should use the Mobilize, Assess, Plan, Implement, Track (MAP-IT) steps used in pulling together your project. The complete documentation of the work accomplished over the course of the project should contain a minimum of 6–7 pages in a Microsoft Word document and should include the following information:

•A detailed description of the aggregate

•A description of the aggregate’s strengths and weaknesses

•A risk assessment of the aggregate

•Diagnoses based on the risk assessment

•A detailed care plan for the aggregate

•A description of how at least one intervention was implemented in the aggregate to address an identified issue

•An evaluation of how you would identify the effectiveness of the intervention  The Power Point presentation should be concise and should include the highlights of the Capstone project and the key things learned over the course of this project, from developing, implementing, and evaluating the care plan. Your presentation should not exceed 15 slides.

 
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Psychiatric Nurse Practitioner Standards

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Psychiatric Nurse Practitioner Standards

(Psychiatric Nurse Practitioner Standards)

scope and practice of mental health nurse practitioner

Question description

APA 5 sources Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing. Scope and Standards of Practice. Review the Scope and Standards of Practice from APNA (American Psychiatric Nurses Association). If you are an APNA member you can access the book free of charge. The link in this section will link you to the book but you will have to log in. It is a good idea to join APNA. You can also buy a print copy if you desire; it is inexpensive. The book is not a required reading. I have provided the standards here. The standards are taken directly from APNA Scope and Standards of Practice 2ndedition (2014). Assignment for this module: Take each Standard and give several examples of how you will follow these standards in your practice. Please, only list just a few bullet points to address each standard. Ex: Standard 1: Assessment—what screening tools will you use? Will you meet with the pt and family together or separate or both? How much time will you allow for a new patient eval? As a NP will need to know your scope of practice. You cannot rely on someone else to know your scope.

(Psychiatric Nurse Practitioner Standards)

Standard 1: Assessment

•Collect and synthesize comprehensive health data that are pertinent to the healthcare consumer’s health and/or situation.

Standard 2: Diagnosis

•Develop standard psychiatric and substance use diagnoses

Standard 3: Outcomes Identification

•Identify expected outcomes and the healthcare consumer’s goals for a plan individualized to the healthcare consumer or to the situation.

Standard 4: Planning

•Develop a plan that prescribes strategies and alternatives to assist the healthcare consumer in attainment of expected outcomes.

Standard 5: Implementation

•Implement the identified plan

•Coordinate care delivery

•Employ strategies to promote health and a safe environment

•Provide consultation to influence the identified plan, enhance the abilities of other clinicians to provide services for the healthcare consumers, and effect change.

•Use prescriptive authority, procedures, referrals, treatments and therapies in accordance with state and federal laws and regulations.

•Incorporate knowledge of pharmacological, biological, and complementary interventions with applied clinical skills to restore the healthcare consumer’s health and prevent further disability •Provide structures and maintains a safe, therapeutic, recovery-oriented environment in collaboration with healthcare consumers, families and other healthcare clinicians.

•Use the therapeutic relationship and counseling interventions to assist healthcare consumers in their individual recovery journeys by improving and regaining their previous coping abilities, fostering mental health, and preventing mental disorder and disability

•Conducts individual, couples, group, and family psychotherapy using evidence based psychotherapeutic frameworks and the nurse-client therapeutic relationship

(Psychiatric Nurse Practitioner Standards)

Standard 6: Evaluation

•Evaluate progress toward attainment of expected outcomes

Standard 7: Ethics

•Integrate ethical provisions in all areas of practice

Standard 8: Education

•Attain knowledge and competence that reflect current nursing practice.

Standard 9: Evidence-Based Practice and Research

•Integrate evidence and research findings into practice

Standard 10: Quality of Practice

•Systematically enhance the quality and effectiveness of nursing practice

Standard 11: Communication

•Communicate effectively in a variety of formats in all areas of practice.

Standard 12: Leadership

•Provide leadership in the professional practice setting and the profession

Standard 13: Collaboration

•Collaborate with the healthcare consumer, family, interprofessional health team and others in the conduct of nursing practice

Standard 14: Professional Practice Evaluation

•Evaluate one’s own practice in relation to the professional practice standards and guidelines, relevant statutes, rules and regulations

Standard 15: Resource Utilization

•Consider factors related to safety, effectiveness, cost and impact on practice in the planning and delivery of nursing services

Standard 16: Environment Health

•Practice in an environmentally safe and healthy manner

 
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Enhancing Care through Complexity

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Enhancing Care through Complexity

(Enhancing Care through Complexity)

Complex systems in organizational learning refer to intricate networks of interdependent components that exhibit unpredictable behaviors and emergent properties. In such systems, learning is not linear but rather dynamic and adaptive, involving feedback loops and interactions at multiple levels. Organizations operating as complex systems need to continuously adapt and evolve in response to internal and external changes.

Organizational learning within complex systems is characterized by the collective acquisition, sharing, and application of knowledge. It involves recognizing patterns, interpreting data, and experimenting with new approaches. Learning is facilitated through collaboration, open communication, and a culture that encourages experimentation and accepts failures as opportunities for growth.

Key elements of organizational learning in complex systems include:

  1. Feedback Loops: Continuous cycles of feedback help organizations adjust strategies and processes.
  2. Diversity and Inclusion: Diverse perspectives and inclusive practices enhance problem-solving and innovation.
  3. Systems Thinking: Viewing the organization holistically to understand interconnections and dependencies.
  4. Adaptive Capacity: The ability to respond flexibly to changes and uncertainties.

Organizations that thrive in complex environments foster a learning culture that values curiosity, resilience, and the capacity to evolve. This enables them to navigate complexity, leverage collective intelligence, and achieve sustainable success in an ever-changing landscape.

Complex Systems, Organizational Learning, and Improving the Quality of Care” Please respond to the following:

Elaborate on the major reasons why, according to the text, health care systems can be considered complex. Next, argue a case for double-loop against single-loop learning in organizational learning. Support your response with at least one (1) example of the advantages of double-loop learning.

Common industry knowledge dictates that in order to achieve desired outcomes in quality improvement in health care organizations, the leadership must consider multiple factors. Speculate on the main reasons why focusing on processes is a highly regarded practice for improving the performance of health care organizations. Support your response with at least two (2) examples of increased value and / or performance in the researched hospital from the e-Activity.

 
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Origins of Theoretical Frameworks

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Origins of Theoretical Frameworks

(Origins of Theoretical Frameworks)

Origin of theory,health and medicine homework help

Question description

Where Did the Theory Come From

This Assignment addresses this course outcome:

2:Explain how theoretical frameworks influence advance.

PurposeThe purpose of this Assignment is to explore how a theorist explicates his or her philosophy and thoughts behind a theoretical field. As in other fields of study, nursing has a plethora of theorists and theories. These theorists have developed their paradigm over time enriching it with research and dialogue with other theorists.

DirectionsYou are going to explore how a theorist of your choice created his or her theory. Did it develop as an acorn becoming a mighty oak over the decades? Did it arrive as a burst of light like the big bang as some believe created our universe? Was it developed from a blueprint like a spaceship where thousands of scholars worked together to create a rocket to the moon? In point of fact, how is a theory developed? This is what we are exploring.

You will pick a theorist who interests you, it does not have to be a nurse theorist. You may also choose from other disciplines such as: behavioral, leadership, business, education, technology.

You will become the theorist immersing yourself in the writings from the earliest mentioned to the most current.

As you read, look at how you (taking on the persona of the theorist) developed the theory.

In thefirst stage, theorizing occurs. This is where you, as the theorist, identify the concepts of what nursing is and is not. Perhaps you questioned what concepts were guiding those in nursing practice and then started to question your role. You started asking yourself, “Where am I in nursing, and where the profession is going? Is there some overarching concept that guides the professional in his or her practice?” This is where you recognize that a theory is needed.

In thesecond stage, syntax is developed. This is where you will define the terms. Look for changing definitions of terms. Consider, for example, Jean Watson. She starts by defining the word “caring.” Within the last ten years she has refined her terminology changing the term caring to caritas. This demonstrates a growth and maturation from decades of research she and other scholars did to produce the theory of caring.

Thethird stageis theory testing. Defined as the phenomena behind the theory that are exposed through research. The definitions of terms are refined. The theorists and other researchers consider whether this theory helps answer questions that arise in practice. This is where your theory is used in by a widening group of researchers. For example, graduate nursing students request the tool you developed while testing your theory.

Thefourth and last stageis evaluation. This is where philosophical debate occurs as the concepts are applied through evidenced based practice in the act of providing nursing care.

Assignment DetailsFor this Assignment, you are going to write an article for a nursing journal explaining how you developed your theory through the four stages (theorizing, syntax, theory testing, and evaluation).Your paper must be 3 to 5 pages, not including the title and reference pages.

To view the Grading Rubric for this Assignment, please visit the Grading Rubrics section of the Course Home.

Assignment Requirements

Before finalizing your work, you should:

  • be sure toread the Assignment description carefully(as displayed above);
  • consult the Grading Rubric(under the Course Home) to make sure you have included everything necessary; and
  • utilizespellingandgrammar checkto minimize errors.

Your writing Assignment should:

  • follow the conventions ofStandard American English(correct grammar, punctuation, etc.);
  • bewell ordered,logical,andunified, as well asoriginal and insightful;
  • displaysuperior content, organization, style,andmechanics; and
  • useAPA 6th Editionformat.
 
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Power Point Project

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Power Point Project

(Power Point Project)

Leadership and Management

Early childhood administrators need to be well-versed in standards set by the National Association for the Education of Young Children (NAEYC). Having comprehensive knowledge of these standards will help to ensure a quality early childhood program. Review the article, “Overview of the NAEYC Early Childhood Program Standards” with particular attention to Standard 10: Leadership and Management.

Rationale:
Excellent programming requires effective governance structures, competent and knowledgeable leadership, as well as comprehensive and well-functioning administrative policies, procedures, and systems. Effective leadership and management create the environment for high-quality care and education by:

  1. Ensuring compliance with relevant regulations and guidelines
  2. Promoting fiscal soundness, program accountability, effective communication, helpful consultative services, positive community relations, and comfortable and supportive workplaces.
  3. Maintaining stable staff; and
  4. Instituting ongoing program planning and career development opportunities for staff as well as continuous program improvement.

Application:
You are the director of your own childcare center.  Using Standard #10 in “Overview of the NAEYC Early Childhood Program Standards” as a guide, create an eight- to ten-slide PowerPoint presentation to share with your staff, demonstrating the following NAEYC points:

  1. Effective communication
    • Explain how you will effectively communicate with your staff.
  2. Comfortable and supportive workplaces
    • Describe how you will create a comfortable and supportive workplace for your staff.
  3. Career development opportunities for staff
    • Discuss how you will create professional development opportunities for your staff.
  4. Hiring and retention
    • Explain how you will attract and retain quality staff members.

Your eight- to ten-slide PowerPoint presentation (in addition to your title and reference slides) should:

    • Creatively address the material including graphics, visuals, charts, graphs, and/or sound;
    • Be designed to clearly and concisely address the material;
    • Be formatted according to APA style, including the title slide, reference slide, and in-text citations;
    • Utilize the notes section of the PowerPoint to expand on the presented points. These notes would be your talking points when presenting this to your staff; and
    • Use at least one scholarly source in addition to the course text.

Submit your assignment as an attachment in the Week Four Assignment section. In addition, look ahead to Week Five, Discussion 1, “Presentation Evaluations.” By Day 1 of Week Five, you will need to post your PowerPoint presentation as an attachment to your initial discussion post.

Review this PowerPoint example for ideas on how to set up your project.

Carefully review the Grading Rubric for the criteria that will be used to evaluate your assignment.

 
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Advanced Health Assessment Quizzes

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Advanced Health Assessment Quizzes

(Advanced Health Assessment Quizzes)

NR 507 Weekly Quizzes Week 1 – 7 (Version No. 2)

NR 507 Week No. 1 Quiz

1. Question : Which statement is true about fungal infections?

2. Question : Once they have penetrated the first line of defense, which microorganisms do neutrophils actively attack, engulf, and destroy by phagocytosis?

3. Question : After sexual transmission of HIV, a person can be infected yet seronegative for _____ months.

4. Question : What of the following remains a significant cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide?

5. Question : Cells in _____ may act as a reservoir in which HIV can be relatively protected from antiviral drugs.

6. Question : Which statement about vaccines is true?

7. Question : The class of antibody involved in type I hypersensitivity reactions is

8. Question : In which primary immune deficiency is there a partial to complete absence of T-cell immunity?

9. Question : During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, what causes bronchospasm?

10. Question : Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function?

11. Question : Hypersensitivity is best defined as a(n)

12. Question : In a type II hypersensitivity reaction, when soluble antigens from infectious agents enter circulation, tissue damage is a result of

13. Question : What is the mechanism in type III hypersensitivity reactions?

14. Question : During a stress response, increased anxiety, vigilance, and arousal is prompted by

15. Question : Stress-age syndrome results in decreased

16. Question : Which hormone increases the formation of glucose from amino acids and free fatty acids?

17. Question : What effect does estrogen have on lymphocytes?

18. Question : Intestinal polyps are benign neoplasms and the first stage in development of colon cancer. These findings support the notion that

19. Question : Which of the following cancers originate from connective tissue?

20. Question : Which of the viruses below are oncogenic DNA viruses?

21. Question : Cells from a muscle tumor show a reduced ability to form new muscle and appear highly disorganized. This is an example of

22. Question : Which of the following represents the correct nomenclature for benign and malignant tumors of adipose tissue, respectively?

23. Question : In chronic myeloid leukemia (CML), a piece of chromosome 9 fuses to a piece of chromosome 22. This is an example of which mutation of normal genes to oncogenes?

24. Question : Tobacco smoking is associated with cancers of all of the following except

25. Question : Childhood exposure to all of the following risk factors increases susceptibility to cancer except

NR 507 Week No. 2 Quiz

(Advanced Health Assessment Quizzes)

1. Question: In hyperkalemia, cardiac rhythm changes are a direct result of cardiac cell hypopolarization.

2. Question: When thirst is experienced, how are osmoreceptors activated?

3. Question: Which are indications of dehydration?

4. Question: At the arterial end of capillaries, fluid moves from the intravascular space into the interstitial space because the interstitial hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary hydrostatic pressure.

5. Question: Which enzyme is secreted by the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney when circulating blood volume is reduced?

6. Question: Why are infants susceptible to significant losses in total body water (TBW)?

7. Question: Physiologic pH is maintained around 7.4 because bicarbonate (HCO3) and carbonic acid (H2CO3) exist in a ratio of

8. Question: In ARDS, alveoli and respiratory bronchioles fill with fluid as a result of the compression on the pores of Kohn, thus preventing collateral ventilation.

9. Question: Dyspnea is not a result of

10. Question: Clinical manifestations of pulmonary hypertension include

11. Question: Pulmonary edema usually begins at a pulmonary capillary wedge pressure or left atrial pressure of _____ mm Hg.

12. Question: Clinical manifestations that include unexplained weight loss, dyspnea on exertion, use of accessory muscles, and tachypnea with prolonged expiration are indicative of

13. Question: Which pleural abnormality involves a site of pleural rupture that act as a one-way valve, permitting air to enter on inspiration but preventing its escape by closing during expiration?

14. Question: A(n) _____ is a circumscribed area of suppuration and destruction of lung parenchyma

15. Question: Which of the following is a true statement?

16. Question: High altitudes may produce hypoxemia through

17. Question: The most successful treatment for chronic asthma begins with

18. Question: In tuberculosis, the body walls off the bacilli in a tubercle by stimulating

19. Question: The release of fibroblast growth factors affects ARDS by causing

20. Question: An accurate description of childhood asthma is that it is a(n)

21. Question: What is the primary cause of RDS of the newborn?

22. Question: Cystic fibrosis (CF) is caused by a(n)

23. Question: Chest wall compliance in infants is _____ in adults.

24. Question: Which of the following types of croup is most common?

25. Question: Which of the following statements about the advances in the treatment of RDS of the newborn is incorrect?

NR 507 Week No. 3 Quiz

(Advanced Health Assessment Quizzes)

• Question 1. A 72-year-old woman with a recent onset of syncopal episodes has been referred to a cardiology group by her family physician. As part of the patient’s diagnostic workup, the nurse practitioner conducting the intake assessment has ordered a Holter monitor for 24 hours. Which of the following statements best captures an aspect of Holter monitoring?

• Question 2. As part of the diagnostic workup for a male patient with a complex history of cardiovascular disease, the care team has identified the need for a record of the electrical activity of his heart, insight into the metabolism of his myocardium, and physical measurements, and imaging of his heart. Which of the following series of tests is most likely to provide the needed data for his diagnosis and care?

• Question 3. An 81-year-old female patient of a long-term care facility has a history of congestive heart failure. The nurse practitioner caring for the patient has positioned her sitting up at an angle in bed and is observing her jugular venous distention. Why is jugular venous distention a useful indicator for the assessment of the patient’s condition?

• Question 4. A physical assessment of a 28-year-old female patient indicates that her blood pressure in her legs is lower than that in her arms and that her brachial pulse is weaker in her left arm than in her right. In addition, her femoral pulses are weak bilaterally. Which of the following possibilities would her care provider be most likely to suspect?

• Question 5. A 6-year-old boy has been brought to the emergency department by ambulance after his mother discovered that his heart rate was “so fast I couldn’t even count it.” The child was determined to be in atrial flutter and his mother is seeking an explanation from the health care team. Which of the following points should underlie an explanation to the mother?

• Question 6. A 66-year-old patient’s echocardiogram reveals a hypertrophied left ventricle, normal chamber volume, and a normal ejection fraction from the heart. What is this patient’s most likely diagnosis?

• Question 7. A 70-year-old male patient presents to the emergency department complaining of pain in his calf that is exacerbated when he walks. His pedal and popliteal pulses are faintly palpable and his leg distal to the pain is noticeably reddened. What would his care provider’s preliminary diagnosis and anticipated treatment most likely be?

• Question 8. A patient in the intensive care unit has a blood pressure of 87/39 and has warm, flushed skin accompanying his sudden decline in level of consciousness. The patient also has arterial and venous dilation and a decrease in systemic vascular resistance. What is this patient’s most likely diagnosis?

• Question 9. A 31-year-old woman with a congenital heart defect reports episodes of lightheadedness and syncope, with occasional palpitations. A resting electrocardiogram reveals sinus bradycardia and she is suspected of having sick sinus syndrome. Which of the following diagnostic methods is the best choice to investigate the suspicion?

• Question 10. A nurse practitioner is providing care for several patients on a medical unit of a hospital. In which of the following patient situations would the nurse practitioner be most likely to rule out hypertension as a contributing factor?

• Question 11. A patient is experiencing impaired circulation secondary to increased systemic arterial pressure. Which of the following statements is the most relevant phenomenon?

• Question 12. A number of patients have presented to the emergency department in the last 24 hours with complaints that are preliminarily indicative of myocardial infarction. Which of the following patients is least likely to have an ST-segment myocardial infarction (STEMI)?

• Question 13. A formerly normotensive woman, pregnant for the first time, develops hypertension and headaches at 26 weeks’ gestation. Her blood pressure is 154/110 mm Hg and she has proteinuria. What other labs should be ordered for her?

• Question 14. An older adult female patient has presented with a new onset of shortness of breath, and the patient’s nurse practitioner has ordered measurement of her BNP levels along with other diagnostic tests. What is the most accurate rationale for the nurse practitioner’s choice of blood work?

• Question 15. The nurse practitioner for a cardiology practice is responsible for providing presurgical teaching for patients who are about to undergo a coronary artery bypass graft. Which of the following teaching points best conveys an aspect of the human circulatory system?

• Question 16. A 54-year-old man with a long-standing diagnosis of essential hypertension is meeting with his nurse practitioner. The patient’s nurse practitioner would anticipate that which of the following phenomena is most likely occurring?

(Advanced Health Assessment Quizzes)

• Question 17. A 22-year-old male is experiencing hypovolemic shock following a fight in which his carotid artery was cut with a broken bottle. What immediate treatments are likely to most benefit the man?

• Question 18. A 66-year-old obese man with a diagnosis of ischemic heart disease has been diagnosed with heart failure that his care team has characterized as attributable to systolic dysfunction. Which of the following assessment findings is inconsistent with his diagnosis?

• Question 19. A 68-year-old male complains to his nurse practitioner that when he tests his blood pressure using a machine at his pharmacy, his heart rate is nearly always very low. At other times, he feels that his heart is racing, and it also seems to pause at times. The man has also occasionally had lightheadedness and a recent syncopal episode. What is this patient’s most likely diagnosis and the phenomenon underlying it?

• Question 20. An autopsy is being performed on a 44-year-old female who died unexpectedly of heart failure. Which of the following components of the pathologist’s report is most suggestive of a possible history of poorly controlled blood pressure?

• Question 21. During a routine physical examination of a 66-year-old woman, her nurse practitioner notes a pulsating abdominal mass and refers the woman for further treatment. The nurse practitioner is explaining the diagnosis to the patient, who is unfamiliar with aneurysms. Which of the following aspects of the pathophysiology of aneurysms would underlie the explanation the nurse provides?

• Question 22. A patient has suffered damage to his pericardium following a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following consequences should the nurse practitioner be most likely to rule out?

• Question 23. A nurse practitioner is instructing a group of older adults about the risks associated with high cholesterol. Which of the following teaching points should the participants try to integrate into their lifestyle after the teaching session?

• Question 24. An 81-year-old male resident of a long-term care facility has a long-standing diagnosis of heart failure. Which of the following short-term and longer-term compensatory mechanisms is least likely to decrease the symptoms of his heart failure?

• Question 25. A 55-year-old male who is beginning to take a statin drug for his hypercholesterolemia is discussing cholesterol and its role in health and illness with his nurse practitioner. Which of the following aspects of hyperlipidemia would the nurse practitioner most likely take into account when teaching the patient?

NR 507 Week No. 5 Quiz

(Advanced Health Assessment Quizzes)

1. Question : Which hormone is involved in the regulation of serum calcium levels?

2. Question : Where is oxytocin synthesized?

3. Question : Which of the following is a lipid-soluble hormone?

4. Question : Which mineral is needed for the synthesis of thyroid hormones?

5. Question : The portion of the pituitary that secretes oxytocin is the _____ pituitary.

6. Question : Hormones are effective communicators because they

7. Question : What effect does hyperphosphatemia have on other electrolytes?

8. Question : What is the target tissue for prolactin-releasing factor (PRF)?

9. Question : Target cells for parathyroid hormone (PTH) are located in the

10. Question : Lipid-soluble hormone receptors are located

11. Question : A surgical individual just arrived on the unit from the postanesthesia care unit. This person’s respirations are 4 per minute and shallow. As the nurse calls for assistance, the person suddenly feels jittery and breathing quickens. Which of the following feedback loops is operating for the nurse in this situation?

(Advanced Health Assessment Quizzes)

12. Question : Which of the following hormones acts on its target cell via a second messenger?

13. Question : The level of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) in Graves disease is usually

14. Question : Which of the following laboratory values is consistently low in a client with diabetes insipidus (DI)?

15. Question : Polyuria occurs with diabetes mellitus because of

16. Question : The first lab test that indicates type 1 diabetes is causing the development of diabetic nephropathy is

17. Question : A person has acne, easy bruising, thin extremities, and truncal obesity. These clinical manifestations are indicative of which endocrine disorder?

18. Question : Visual disturbances are a result of a pituitary adenoma because of the

19. Question : Hyperpituitarism is generally caused by

20. Question : Which of the following clinical manifestations is not common to both diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome (HHNKS)?

21. Question : The cause of neurogenic diabetes insipidus (DI) is related to an organic lesion of the

22. Question : The most probable cause of low serum calcium following a thyroidectomy is

23. Question : Which of the following laboratory values would the nurse expect to find if a person is experiencing syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?

24. Question : A person with type 1 diabetes experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. The most probable cause of these symptoms is

25. Question : The effects of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) include solute

NR 507 Week No. 6 Quiz

(Advanced Health Assessment Quizzes)

1. Question : _____ is a chronic inflammatory joint disease characterized by stiffening and fusion of the spine and sacroiliac joints.

2. Question : What pattern of bone destruction is described as not well defined and not easily separated from normal bone?

3. Question : _____ is the temporary displacement of two bones in which the bone surfaces partially lose contact.

4. Question : Which of the following attaches skeletal muscle to bone?

5. Question : Which statement is false about giant cell tumors?

6. Question : Considering the pathophysiology of osteoporosis, what are the effects of extracellular signal regulated kinases (ERKs) and receptor activator of RANKL on osteoblasts and osteoclasts?

(Advanced Health Assessment Quizzes)

7. Question : What is the diagnosis of a person who has tennis elbow characterized by tissue degeneration or irritation of the extensor carpi brevis tendon?

8. Question : Cerebral palsy is usually a result of

9. Question : Molecular analysis has demonstrated that osteosarcoma is associated with

10. Question : Ewing sarcoma arises from

11. Question : Which protein, absent in muscle cells of Duchenne muscular dystrophy, mediates the anchoring of skeletal muscles fibers to the basement membrane?

12. Question : Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy is likely inherited from one’s

13. Question : The pain experienced in Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease is referred to as involving

14. Question : The total mass of muscle in the body can be estimated from which serum laboratory test value?

15. Question : An insufficient dietary intake of vitamin _____ can lead to rickets in children.

16. Question : Which type of psoriasis is characterized by lesions on the elbows and knees that are well demarcated, thick, silvery, scaly, and erythematous?

17. Question : Women who develop hirsutism may be secreting hormones associated with

18. Question : An older adult man states he has a sore above his lip that has not healed and is getting bigger. The nurse observes a red scaly patch with an ulcerated center and sharp margins. The nurse recognizes these features as commonly associated with Bowen disease, a form of

19. Question : Which receptors of the autonomic nervous system regulate heat loss through the skin?

20. Question : Treatment for frostbite includes

21. Question : Rubeola is a highly contagious acute _____ disease in children.

22. Question : What is a common source of tinea corporis?

23. Question : Which skin disorder has as its hallmark clinical manifestation skin lesions that rupture, creating a thin, flat, honey-colored crust?

24. Question : Which of the following viral diseases has an incubation period of 14 to 21 days and a duration of 1 to 4 days?

25. Question : What is the cause of chickenpox?

NR 507 Week No. 7 Quiz

(Advanced Health Assessment Quizzes)

1. Question : Cerebral edema is an increase in the fluid content of the

2. Question : Vomiting is associated with CNS injuries that compress which anatomic location(s)?

3. Question : What is the best prognostic indicator of recovery of consciousness or functional outcome?

4. Question : With receptive dysphasia (fluent), the individual is able to

5. Question : The body compensates to a rise in intracranial pressure by first displacing

6. Question : Characteristics of primary motor neuron amyotrophy include

7. Question : In Parkinson disease (PD), the basal ganglia influences the hypothalamic function to produce which grouping of clinical manifestations?

8. Question : What pathologic alteration produces tremors at rest, rigidity, akinesia, and postural abnormalities?

9. Question : Multiple sclerosis (MS) and Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) are similar in that they both

10. Question : The edema of the upper cervical cord after spinal cord injury is considered life threatening because of

11. Question : A man who sustained a cervical spinal cord injury 2 days ago suddenly develops severe hypertension and bradycardia. He reports severe head pain and blurred vision. The most likely explanation for these clinical manifestations is that he is

12. Question : Spinal cord injuries are most likely to occur in which of the following regions?

13. Question : Which neurotransmitter receptors are blocked by antipsychotic drugs?

14. Question : Which neurotransmitter is inhibited in generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)?

15. Question : Which electrolyte imbalance contributes to lithium toxicity?

16. Question : A _____ is the test done on amniotic fluid and maternal blood to test for neural tube defect.

17. Question : Anterior midline defects of neural tube closure cause developmental defects in the

18. Question : The clinical manifestations of dyskinetic cerebral palsy include

19. Question : A person who has cholera would be expected to have which type of diarrhea?

20. Question : The most common manifestation of portal hypertension induced splenomegaly is

21. Question : The desire to eat is stimulated by

22. Question : Meconium _____ is an intestinal obstruction caused by meconium formed in utero that is abnormally sticky and adheres firmly to the mucosa of the small intestine.

23. Question : Congenital aganglionic megacolon (Hirschsprung disease) involves inadequate motility of the colon caused by neural malformation of the _____ nervous system.

24. Question : Which disorder is characterized by an increase in the percentages in T cells and complement together with IgA and IgM antigliadin antibodies found in jejunum fluid?

25. Question : Which of the following medications compensates for the deficiency that occurs as a result of cystic fibrosis?

 
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Inferential Research & Statistics Project

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Inferential Research & Statistics Project

(Inferential Research & Statistics Project)

Inferential Research and Statistics Project

Part 1

Select one of the following scenarios based on your particular field of interest in psychology:

·         Industrial/Organizational Psychology:

o    A few months ago, the upper management at a large corporation decided they wanted to make major changes in the organization. Leadership is concerned that employees may be resistant to the change, and they want to find out if there is a change management method that would help employees accept change more effectively and keep employee satisfaction high. Two methods they have considered are the ADKAR Framework and the Prosci Change Management Methodology. The company wants to implement a small change in two departments before they make any major organization changes and would like to test the methods. The corporation uses the Devine Company to measure employee satisfaction with an anonymous survey.

·         Applied Psychology: 

o    A large medical facility is experiencing too many missed appointments in its primary and specialty care clinics. The facility has noticed that not all patients respond well to reminder calls regarding follow-up appointments. Some patients do not answer calls and do not seem to respond to voice mail requesting they call the facility. The result is that many follow up appointments are missed. Management has read articles that people respond very well to text messages and would like to see which method provides the least amount of missed appointments. Missed appointments are tracked in the facility database on a monthly basis.

·         General Psychology: 

o    Clinicians at a small clinic have been introduced to a new method to treat post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) in their clients for veterans. Research indicates that virtual reality (VR) is a highly effective treatment option for patients with PTSD. Currently, the clinic uses only cognitive processing therapy (CPT) with their patients suffering from PTSD. The clinicians would like to find out whether VR therapy has different results from CPT therapy. The measure used by the clinic to measure PTSD symptoms is the Combat Exposure Scale. Both therapies need to be applied for a minimum of 12 weeks to be effective.

Write a 525- to 750-word paper that addresses the following for your chosen scenario:

·         Clearly define the problem or issue you are addressing. Provide a brief background of any research you have found that might affect your research hypothesis.

·         Create a research hypothesis based on the information provided in each scenario. You will be given a data set with two sets of interval data (just the numbers, as you must decide what they represent, such as method A results or method B results). This means you are going to test one thing against another, such as which method works best (step 1 of the steps to hypothesis testing). State the null and research hypotheses. Explain whether these hypotheses require a one-tailed test or two-tailed test, and explain your rationale.

·         Describe the sample you will use. Sample size will be 30 for each group, which will be provided in your data set. Explain what type of sampling you selected. You may create your own data set if you want, as it is only hypothetical—you do not need to collect any data.

·         Do you think you would also collect some descriptive data, such as gender, age, or shift? Why do you think it makes sense to collect descriptive data?

 Format your paper according to APA guidelines.

 Example

You have a hypothesis that two drugs have different effects on lowering anxiety. You would have anxiety scores for drug A and anxiety scores for drug B (all after 4 weeks of treatment) to run inferential analysis  after 4 weeks.

·         Null hypothesis is H0: drug A = drug B

·         Research hypothesis is H1: drug A ≠ drug B

·         Dependent variable: Anxiety score changed after treatment.

·         Independent variable: drug treatment

Because you did not state a direction in your hypotheses (better than or worse than), this will be a two-tailed test. You are looking for differences in either direction. You would set your alpha level of .05 and have a sample for each group of 30 people that were volunteers for the study.

Part 2

Analyze the data from Part 1 using Microsoft® Excel® software.

Write a 700- to 875-word paper that includes the following information:

·         Describe what method you are using to compare groups.

·         Copy and paste the output into a Microsoft® Word document, and also answer the following questions:

o    What is the significance level of the comparison?

o    What was the alpha level you identified in Week 3?

o    What was the means and variance for each variable?

o    What was the test statistic?

o    What was the critical value for both the one- and two-tailed test?

o    Was your test one-tailed or two-tailed?

o    Were you able to reject the null hypothesis? In other words, did you prove there was a difference?

·         Talk about what these results mean in everyday language and in context to your chosen scenario.

·         Make a recommendation based on the findings.

Format your paper according to APA guidelines.

Example of Output You Would Use to Answer These Questions

 

t Test: Two-Sample Assuming Equal Variances
          Variable 1        Variable 2
Mean 4.875 8
Variance 5.267857143 18.28571429
Observations 8 8
Pooled variance 11.77678571
Hypothesized mean difference 0
df 14
t stat -1.821237697
P(T <= t) one-tail 0.045002328
t Critical one-tail 1.761310136
P(T <= t) two-tail 0.090004655
t Critical two-tail 2.144786688

Part 3

Create a 12- to 15-slide presentation using the information you gathered and submitted in Weeks 3 & 4. Include the following:

·         Describe the problem, and provide some brief background about the situation.

·         Explain the research hypothesis.

·         Describe your sample and your sampling method.

·         Explain the four steps of the research process you followed, and define the critical value and the test statistic your analysis provided.

·         Provide the main finding of the study. What did you prove or fail to prove?

·         Provide recommendations based on your findings.

Format any citations in your presentation according to APA guidelines.

 
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Ethical Issues During Forensic Assessments

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Assignment 2: RA: Ethical Issues during Forensic Assessments

(Ethical Issues During Forensic Assessments)

When conducting forensic assessments, it is  important for forensic mental health professionals to have a thorough  understanding of the following:

  • Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct Including 2010 Amendments
  • Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology: Adopted by APA Council of Representatives

Ethical issues are commonly present when  completing forensic assessments. Read the scenario below and discuss the  ethical issues therein.

Dr. Smith was contacted by the District  County Attorney’s office to evaluate Mr. Doe as part of a sexually  violent predator civil commitment hearing. Dr. Smith agreed to complete  the evaluation and contacted the prison facility, where Mr. Doe was  being held, to schedule an appointment.

Upon arrival at the prison, Mr. Doe’s  attorney indicated that he wanted to be present for the interview and  psychological testing. Dr. Smith agreed, and they proceeded with the  interview. During the interview, while discussing his sex offense  history, Mr. Doe admitted to offending against two adult females. He  also reported offending against his three-year-old daughter. He  indicated that his relationship with his wife, although rocky at times,  is generally supportive. Upon inquiry, he reported a history of domestic  abuse, which was never reported. He explained that due to his arrest  and incarceration, his wife has had to find a job to be able to continue  to afford their housing. He reported that he previously worked as a  general maintenance worker at a local trucking company. He explained  that he cheated on his wife with a coworker, who has since stopped all  communication. He indicated that this coworker used to visit and send  him letters and money when he was first “locked up.” He reported that he  was angry that she ceased all communication, without explanation, and  spoke of her with rage and hostility. He said, “If I ever see her again,  I’ll kill her.”

During the administration of the  psychological tests, Mr. Doe asked to use the restroom once and was  provided another five-minute break. There was a great deal of background  noise throughout the interview and administration. On two occasions,  Mr. Doe asked his attorney how he should answer the question. He was  advised, and he answered as such. Upon the completion of testing, Dr.  Smith thanked Mr. Doe and his attorney for their time and indicated that  he would see them in court.

If released, Mr. Doe will return to his home  with his wife and two daughters. He has reported to the prison staff  that he will also return to his previous job and may enroll in  vocational classes at an area community college.

Tasks:

As a forensic mental health professional, discuss the ethical issues in the scenario. Refer to the following resources:

  • American Psychological Association. (2010). Ethical principles of
                               psychologists and code of conduct including 2010 amendments.
    Retrieved from http://www.apa.org/ethics/code/index.aspx
  • American Psychology-Law Society. (2011). Specialty guidelines for forensic
                               psychology: Adopted by APA Council of Representatives [Unofficial
    version]. Retrieved from http://www.ap-ls.org/aboutpsychlaw/
    SGFP_Final_Approved_2011.pdf

Write a 5- to 6-page report in a Microsoft Word document addressing the following:

  • Identify the appropriate APA ethical code(s) and the specialty guidelines that may apply to this scenario.
  • Examine the limits of confidentiality. How might those limits be affected by some of the information contained in the scenario?
  • Discuss specific circumstances in the case study in which there might be a duty to report or duty to warn.
  • Explain the limitations of what the evaluator can and cannot say.
  • Discuss the implications of the third-party observer to the overall evaluation.

Your report should rely upon at least four  scholarly resources from the professional literature that are cited in  APA format. The literature may include the Argosy University online  library resources; relevant textbooks; peer-reviewed journal articles;  and websites created by professional organizations, agencies, or  institutions (.edu, and .gov).

Submission Detail

  •   Assignment Component
    Proficiency
    Max Points
    Identify   the appropriate APA ethical code(s) and the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic   Psychologists that appear within this scenario.CO   1APA   ethical code(s) and the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychologists   identified are accurate for the scenario and cover all codes and guidelines   present in the scenario. Specific examples of how they appear in the scenario   are identified and completely explained.
    /   52 pts
    Examine   the limits to confidentiality.

    CO   1

    Limits   to confidentiality are accurately identified and specific to the scenario.   Specific examples and references to research are used to support ideas.
    /   32 pts
    Discuss   duty to report and/or duty to warn.

    CO   1

    Specific   circumstances in which there is the duty to report and/or warn in the case   example are accurately identified. All instances of appropriateness for duty   to report and/or warn are discussed.

    /   28 pts
    Explain   the limitations of what the evaluator can and cannot say

    CO   1 and 2

    Limitations   of what evaluator can and cannot say are accurately identified and clearly   explained. Specific examples and references to research are used to support   ideas. All limitations that are appropriate to the scenario are presented and   thoroughly explained.

    /   40 pts
    Discuss   the implications of the third-party observer to the overall evaluation.

    CO   1

    Discussion   of the implications of third-party observers is clear, complete, and   thoughtful. Specific examples of how it impacts the evaluation and references   to research are used to support ideas.
    /   28 pts
    Write in a clear, concise, and organized manner;   demonstrate ethical scholarship in accurate representation and attribution of   sources; display accurate spelling, grammar, and punctuation.

    Writing   is generally clear and in an organized manner. It demonstrates ethical   scholarship in accurate representation and attribution of sources; and   generally displays accurate spelling, grammar, punctuation. Errors are few,   isolated, and do not interfere with reader’s comprehension.
    /   20 pts

    Total
    / 200 pts

 
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