Causes Of Pelvic Pain

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MN577 Discussion Board: Common Causes Of Pelvic Pain – Peer Response

(Causes Of Pelvic Pain)

Will need minimum of 150 words for each response, APA Style, double spaced, times new roman, font 12, and and Include: (1 reference for each response within years 2015-2018) with intext citation.

Peer Resp.#1

 

When it comes to women’s health, pelvic pain is a serious condition that needs to be examined carefully and seriously.  Pelvic pain is a common problem among women and in primary care office, and it is seen in approximately in one to two percentage of women (Dunphy et al., 2015).  The nature and intensity of the pain may fluctuate, and its cause is often unclear.  According to Dunphy et al., (2015) pelvic pain is characterized as acute, chronic or recurrent and reported in both pelvic or lower abdomen.  Speer, Mushkbar, & Erbele (2016) define Chronic Pelvic Pain (CPP) as a persistent, noncyclic pain perceived to be in structures related to the pelvis, lasting more than six months, and does not show any signs of improvement with treatment.  Due to the multiple possible causes to develop CPP, the diagnosis could be difficult and must be done with care.  The cause of the pelvic pain might stem from genitourinary, gastrointestinal, musculoskeletal system disease or dysfunction which could cause sudden acute pain. (Dunphy et al., 2015).  CPP is not a direct diagnosis, but rather a condition that is caused by numerous factors or another medical disease.   The most prevalent and medically significant causes are cancers, sexually transmitted diseases (STDs), and general medical issues with the intestines and reproductive organs (Passavanti, Pota, & Sansone, 2017).  Ovarian cancer, chlamydia, and ovarian cysts are all potential causes that could be extremely serious for the patient and could even be life threatening.  On the other hand, it could be simple ache or pain caused by relatively benign reasons (Speer, Mushkbar, & Erbele, 2016).  Chronic or recurrent pelvic pain is less urgent; and recurrent pain could be associated or not with menstruation (Dunphy et al., 2015).  The origin of CPP could be related to benign or malignant neoplasms or characterized as psychogenic. (Dunphy et al., 2015).

 

Pain is a subjective symptom, and healthcare professionals cannot experience the pain that the patient is experiencing.  However, there are procedures that can help with assessment and diagnosis.  First, when assessing pelvic pain, a solid interview with the patient should be conducted, including the use of pain scales, questionnaires, and direct statements from the patient (Passavanti, Pota, & Sansone, 2017).  Severe persisting pain that has been present for an extended period should be evaluated and taken as a potential cause for professional diagnosis.  Due to the sheer amount of potential conditions that could cause pelvic pain, being able to narrow down possible causes is extremely important.  Therefore, other factors must be put into consideration to make a good differential diagnosis.  Lifford & Barbieri (2002) state that evaluating potential pre-existing conditions such as depression, narcotic dependency, and physical, sexual, or emotional abuse is crucial when diagnosing pelvic pain.   In the case that patients state that the pain is unbearable and severely affects their everyday life, referral to emergency department must be recommended to get promptly treatment.  Overall, the diagnosis and evaluation of pelvic pain cannot be taken lightly and should be done with caution to implement an adequate treatment with good health outcomes, which could give to the patient a better quality of life.  The determination when and why one would refer a patient for diagnostics and second opinions is based upon by the physical exam and tests, treatments might include medicines, surgical procedures, physical therapy and pain management techniques.

References

Peer Resp.#2

 

There are many different causes of pelvic pain in women. Pelvic pain is defined as pain that is felt in the lower part of the abdomen or pelvis and can be caused from urinary, reproductive/sexual, musculoskeletal, or digestive issues (Mayo Clinic, 2018). One of the causes can be due to uterine fibroids. Uterine fibroids, also referred to as leiomyomas, are noncancerous growths in the uterus that can cause pain, abnormal bleeding, pelvic pressure, constipation, and back aches (Mayo Clinic, 2018). Uterine fibroids are most commonly seen in patients who are in child bearing years and they can vary in size, shape, and symptom severity. Fibroids do not generally interfere with conceiving; however, they can lead to placental abruption, preterm delivery, and fetal growth restriction if not managed properly. (Mayo Clinic, 2018).

This patient would be referred to a GYN specialist and surgeon, have a pelvic ultrasound obtained with results sent to both the primary and GYN. The GYN specialist, surgeon, and patient can discuss a treatment plan such as expectant management, laparoscopic myomectomy, or hysterectomy. (Mayo Clinic, 2018)

The steps to writing a referral involve the diagnosis and chief complaint, plan of care such as the ultrasound, and the NP should plan to see the patient in 2 weeks for ultrasound review and to discuss the patient’s plan going forward.

 
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Financial Analysis: Dowling Sportswear NPV

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Financial Analysis: Dowling Sportswear NPV

(Financial Analysis: Dowling Sportswear NPV)

Net present value calculation Dowling Sportswear, Accounting Assignment Homework Help

Question description

Question 1: (10 points). (Net present value calculation) Dowling Sportswear is considering building a new factory to produce aluminum baseball bats. This project would require an initial cash outlay of $4,000,000 and would generate annual net cash inflows of $900,000 per year for 7 years. Calculate the project’s NPV using a discount rate of 5 percent. (Round to the nearest dollar.)

a. If the discount rate is 5 percent, then the project’s NPV is: $

Question 2: (30 points). (Net present value calculation) Big Steve’s, makers of swizzle sticks, is considering the purchase of a new plastic stamping machine. This investment requires an initial outlay of $90,000 and will generate net cash inflows of $19,000 per year for 11 years. To answer Choose an item questions, click on the orange text and use the pull down menu to select the best answer.

a. What is the project’s NPV using a discount rate of 7 percent? (Round to the nearest dollar.)

If the discount rate is 7 percent, then the project’s NPV is: $

Should the project be accepted?

The project Choose an item. accepted because the NPV is Choose an item. and therefore Choose an item. value to the firm.

b. What is the project’s NPV using a discount rate of 16 percent?

If the discount rate is 16 percent, then the project’s NPV is: $

Should the project be accepted?

The project Choose an item. accepted because the NPV is Choose an item. and therefore Choose an item. value to the firm.

If the project’s required discount rate is 16%, then the project Choose an item. accepted because the IRR is Choose an item. Than the required discount rate.

c. What is this project’s internal rate of return? (Round to two decimal places.)

This project’s internal rate of return is:   %

Should the project be accepted? Why or why not?

If the project’s required discount rate is 7%, then the project Choose an item. accepted because the IRR is Choose an item. the required discount rate.

If the project’s required discount rate is 16%, then the project Choose an item. accepted because the IRR is Choose an item. the required discount rate.

Question 3: (15 points). (Related to Checkpoint 11.2) (Equivalent annual cost calculation) Barry Boswell is a financial analyst for Dossman Metal Works, Inc. and he is analyzing two alternative configurations for the firm’s new plasma cutter shop. The two alternatives that are denoted A and B below perform the same task and although they each cost to purchase and install they offer very different cash flows. Alternative A has a useful life of 7 years whereas Alternative B will only last for 3 years. The after-tax cash flows from the two projects are as follows:(Financial Analysis: Dowling Sportswear NPV)

a. Calculate each project’s equivalent annual cost (EAC) given a discount rate of 10 percent. (Round to the nearest cent.)

a. Alternative A’s equivalent annual cost (EAC) at a discount rate of 10% is: $
b. Alternative B’s equivalent annual cost (EAC) at a discount rate of 10% is $

b. Which of the alternatives do you think Barry should select? Why? (Select the best choice below.)

a.  This cannot be determined from the information provided.

b.  Alternative B should be selected because its equivalent annual cost is less per year than the annual equivalent cost for Alternative A.

c.  Alternative A should be selected because its equivalent annual cost is less per year than the annual equivalent cost for Alternative B.

d.  Alternative A should be selected because it has the highest NPV.

 

Question 4: (10 points). (IRR calculation) What is the internal rate of return for the following project: An initial outlay of $9,000 resulting in a single cash inflow of $15,424 in 7 years. (Round to the nearest whole percent.)

a. The internal rate of return for the project is:   %

Question 5: (10 points). (IRR calculation) Jella Cosmetics is considering a project that costs $750,000 and is expected to last for 9 years and produce future cash flows of $180,000 per year. If the appropriate discount rate for this project is 17 percent, what is the project’s IRR? (Round to two decimal places.)

a. The project’s IRR is:   %

Question 6: (10 points) (IRR, payback, and calculating a missing cash flow) Mode Publishing is considering a new printing facility that will involve a large initial outlay and then result in a series of positive cash flows for four years. The estimated cash flows associated with this project are:

If you know that the project has a regular payback of 2.9 years, what is the project’s internal rate of return?

a. The IRR of the project is:   %

Question 7: (15 points) (Mutually exclusive projects and NPV) You have been assigned the task of evaluating two mutually exclusive projects with the following projected cash flows:

If the appropriate discount rate on these projects is 11 percent, which would be chosen and why? (Round to the nearest cent.)

a. The NPV of Project A is: $
b. The NPV of Project B is: $

Which project would be chosen and why? (Select the best choice below.)

a.  Cannor choose without comparing their IRRs.

b.  Choose A because its NPV is higher.

c.  Choose both because they both have positive NPVs.

d.  Choose B because its NPV is higher.

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Global Economic Strategy and Leadership

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Global Economic Strategy and Leadership

(Global Economic Strategy and Leadership)

business help please no plagiarized material

Question description

original work only no plagiarism

Please complete each part and follow each instructions for the parts

Please don’t use any plagiarizes materials

Part one

Resources: National Bureau of Economic Research

Develop a 2,100-word economic outlook that includes the following:

  • Using data from the above link to the NBER, and other sources, analyze the history of changes in U. S. GDP, Inflation, and Unemployment and compare to each of their forecasts for the next five years.
  • Discuss how government policies, such as fiscal and monetary, can influence economic growth.
  • Analyze how monetary policy could influence the long-run behavior of inflation rates, and other real or nominal variables.
  • Describe how trade deficits or surpluses can influence the growth of productivity and GDP.
  • Discuss the importance of the market for loanable funds and the market for foreign-currency exchange to our economic growth.
  • Recommend, based on your above findings, what the government should do to encourage economic growth

Use a minimum of three peer-reviewed sources from the University Library.

Use the university of phoenix library to set sources and also in text citations go to www.phoenixedu to find the library that have sources

Part 2

This part is a team collaboration so only write on what I highlighted and give me about one source and write about 300 words on my bulletin topic. The country will be japan.

Assignment Steps

Resources: National Bureau of Economic Research

Scenario: The organization’s strategic plan calls for an aggressive growth plan, requiring investment in facilities and equipment, growth in productivity, and labor over the next five years. It is your team’s task to determine where, outside the United States, your organization should locate its new manufacturing plant.

Write a 1,050-word report recommending an off-shore country and support your choice with the following data:

  • The factors determining the selected country’s productivity
  • How the selected country’s policies influence its productivity growth
  • How the selected country’s financial system is related to key macroeconomic variables: GDP, Unemployment & Inflation
  • How your organization can reduce the risks they would face in relocating
  • The selected country’s current and projected unemployment rate over the next five years

Cite a minimum of three peer-reviewed sources not including your textbook.

Format the assignment consistent with APA guidelines.

Part 3

On this part I have highlighted what I need did. I need you to write at least 180 words on what I highlighted and add in text citation with reference this is a group assignment on this part so do only what I highlighted. I will submit another document to help get started on this assignment

This is a Collaborative Learning Community (CLC) assignment.

Write the Strategic Leadership and Entrepreneurship section for your Capstone project (a minimum of 500 words). Refer to Chapter 12 in the textbook for additional information. Be sure to address the following questions:

1.What is the leader’s sphere of influence in your organization? Based on this, what impact can the leader have on the implementation of your business plan?

2.What potential leadership bias could impact the development or progress of your organization’s development?

3.What hurdles do you anticipate?

4.What leadership style(s) will a leader in your organization have to demonstrate? How could you incorporate Servant Leadership?

5.What are potential strengths and weaknesses as they relate to your business?

6.How can the leadership in your organization impact and influence others and deliver the results you expect?

Prepare this assignment according to the APA guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.

 
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Virtual Versus Physical Conversations

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Virtual Versus Physical Conversations: Analyzing Interaction Dynamics

(Virtual Versus Physical Conversations)

Virtual

Instructions

You are to gather and analyze conversations comparing virtual to face-to-face interactions.

  • Begin by creating a brief 5 question opinion survey/interview on a topic of interest. This should include open-ended questions so that the people surveyed can elaborate on their answers.

Please be mindful of using open questions in your survey. These are questions that require an explanation / more than a few words. Here are some examples: What are some of the things you like about this class?  What are the challenges of going to school while working full time?  How is an online class different from a face-to-face class?  What types of activities do you enjoy in your class?  Describe the consequences of getting behind.  Avoid closed questions. These are questions that can be answered with a couple words and offer no explanation. Here are examples:  How many classes are you taking this semester? What classes are you taking this semester? When do you have class? Do you think you are going to pass? Did you turn in all your assignments? Are the tests hard? When is the semester over?

  • Complete the survey/interview with 3 people face-to-face then complete the same survey/interview with 3 people using virtual communication such as email, text messaging, chat room, discussion board, or any other virtual means that you wish to use.
  • To prepare your essay, think critically about your results.

Determine what your thesis is and state it clearly and concisely. It should briefly introduce your topic but more importantly should indicate how virtual interaction compares and contrasts with face-to-face interaction.This will be the first sentence of your essay.

In the body of your essay, you should include your survey-interview questions but it is not necessary to include your participants’ answers. Focus on the answers to these questions and compare and contrast the 2 sets of information. Were your results what you expected? How were they similar; how were they different? Was it easier to interact virtually or face-to-face? What were the challenges? What were the advantages of meeting face-to-face verses meeting virtually? What were the disadvantages of each way? How did the differences in the following seem to influence the nature of the responses: physical distance, anonymity, richness of communication, visual cues, time? You will want to be very thorough in the body as this is a very large percentage of your grade on the essay.

Your conclusion should summarize how virtual interaction with people compares and contrasts with face-to-face interaction reaffirming your thesis without restating it. This is where you conclude with an overall summary describing your insight into what the findings mean to you and what you learned about yourself in reference to your psychological well-being and the method of communication that proves more effective.

 
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(HMLS495) Personal Leadership Portfolio

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Homeland Security (HMLS 495) Personal Leadership Portfolio

((HMLS495) Personal Leadership Portfolio)

Question description

The final course deliverable, the Personal Leadership Portfolio, is created by incorporating targeted leadership knowledge development, self-assessment assignments, and homeland security or public safety leadership analysis. The portfolio represents a personal understanding and plan of public safety leadership based on the course research, module content, discussions, reports, simulation, and your leadership performance.

The process requires weekly demonstration of leadership knowledge development through conference discussion opportunities and leadership self-assessment assignments. The submissions are assessed for accuracy and completeness against project requirements and ensure that the development of leadership knowledge, assessment, and analysis provides a maximum foundation for the sequential portfolio development. The completed personal leadership portfolio correlates with professional homeland security and public safety leadership best practices, resulting in a tangible product that can become a base for future leadership development.

> Assessment Sequence

The project is made up of sequential steps that constitute the required actions of semester-long portfolio development. The process assessment utilizes a recommended portfolio document structure.

1. Gather—the gathering of course and outside leadership materials and resources.
2. Research—narrowing the focus of academic and anecdotal leadership topics to professional homeland security or public safety leadership topics.
3. Organize—establish an information-handling process in order to coordinate resources, sources, and gathered data. Monitor for policy topic research completeness through use of an information-handling and organization process.
4. Analyze and evaluate—compare, contrast, and judge resource material to develop cogent documentation.
5. Assess—assimilate personal leadership history report results with cogent documentation, demonstrating the nexus between personal leadership history and data with academic and anecdotal resources. This step may also include assessing past leadership opportunities for lessons learned.
6. Apply—based on steps 1-5, determine personal leadership styles and traits and how the determination can be applied in a professional homeland security or public safety setting. This step will also include personal leadership strengths and challenges for future development.
7. Create a personal leadership development plan for your future in public safety.

> Personal Leadership Portfolio Document Structure and Content Topics((HMLS495) Personal Leadership Portfolio)

The body of the Personal Leadership Portfolio shall be at least 12 pages, excluding other material such as the cover page, table of contents, abstract, graphics and tables, and references. The paper shall be presented in APA (6th edition) format, all margins should be 1”, 12 point font, and be in either Arial or New Times Roman font style. In the following descending order of preference, information sources must be either peer-reviewed articles, government reports, or other sources approved by your instructor. Internet information sources from other than authoritative sources are discouraged. See the Personal Leadership Portfolio grading rubric for more information. The personal leadership portfolio shall cover all of the following topics:

  • presentation and discussion of academic and anecdotal resource materials
  • deconstruction of current homeland security or public safety leadership
  • identification of acceptable and effective professional homeland security or public safety leadership principles
  • collation of data from personal leadership self-assessment assignments
  • comparison and contrast of self-assessment data, to include applicability, with best practices and identified leadership principles
  • presentation and discussion of future personal leadership development and opportunity

The completed personal leadership portfolio correlates with professional homeland security and public safety leadership best practices, resulting in a tangible product that can become a base for future leadership development.

Hide Rubrics

Rubric Name: Personal Leadership Portfolio Rubric((HMLS495) Personal Leadership Portfolio)

Criteria
Follows and exceeds expectations noted in instructions Follows instructions Follows some but not all instructions. Gestures toward instructions but demonstrates little comprehension or competency Disregards instructions
Can earn betwee 9-10 points. Demonstrates a high degree of originality, insight and/or problem-solving skill Shows some originality, insight and/or problem-solving skill Shows minimally acceptable originality, insight and/or problem-solving skill Demonstrates very little creative thought or insight; consists mostly of second-hand ideas Can earn betwee 0-5 points. Shows no original thought; all second-hand ideas
No APA style errors No more than three APA style errors More than four or five APA style errors More than six APA style errors No attempt at APA style
Can earn from 27-30 points. Thoroughly and insightfully explores, explains and supports each idea. Can earn from 24-26 points. Develops and supports key points. Can earn from 21-23 points. Inconsistently develops and supports ideas. Can earn from 18-20 points. Inadequately or ineffectively explains and defends ideas. Can earn from 0-17 points. Does not make a meaningful attempt to explain or support ideas.
Can earn from 9-10 points. Demonstrates comprehension of all source material; integrates sources appropriately and effectively Most source material is appropriate, but some if not fully explained or integrated into the paper Source material is not consistently appropriate or integrated into the paper Source material is rarely appropriate and/or rarely integrated into the paper Can earn from 0-5 points. No use of source material
Can earn between 9-10 points. Demonstrates comprehension of all source material; integrates sources appropriately and effectively Most ideas are presented clearly but sometimes too simplistically Wordy; some points require rereading to understand fully Unclear and difficult to understand Can earn from 0-5 points. Largely incomprehensible
Can earn from 18-20 points. Clear, specific linkages between course material and leadership style. Can earn from 16-17 points. Most points of leadership style are linked to course material. Can earn from 14-15 points. Partial links to course material. Can earn from 12-13 points. Vague links to course material. Can earn from 0-11 points. No linkages provided.
Can earn from 9-10 points. References from part 1 used in part 1, analysis from part 1 can be easily identified in part 2. No references from part 1 used, analysis only partly incorporated. 50% of history report used. Less than 25% of history report used Can earn from 0-5 points. No portion of history report used.
Overall Score
 
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Critical Thinking Assignment 1

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Critical Thinking Assignment 1

(Critical Thinking Assignment 1)

Question description

The specific 6 elements and tasks of the ARC

The Assessment Rubric for Critical Thinking (ARC) Assessment Profile is a written demonstration of your competence to analyze, synthesize, and evaluate a legal problem and create a bridge between theory and application.

A successful ARC project will demonstrate your ability to examine, question, critique, modify, and reflect on a healthcare issue associated with healthcare compliance. This will include utilizing your critical thinking skills to intellectually explore and critically examine a problem/issue, develop a perspective on this problem/issue and provide support in favor of your perspective.

ARC Assignment Profile

The ARC is a ‘tool’ to evaluate critical thinking. The specific 6 elements and tasks of the ARC that you will be graded on include:

1.Communication: Define the problem in your own words.

2.Analysis: Compare & contrast the available solutions within the scenario.

3.Problem Solving: Select one of the available solutions and defend it as your chosen solution.

4.Evaluation: Identify the weaknesses of your chosen solution.

5.Synthesis: Suggest ways to improve/strengthen your chosen solution.

6.Reflection: Reflect on your own thought process after completing the assignment.

a.“What did you learn from this process?”

b.“What would you do differently next time to improve?”

Review the scenario described below.Then answer the questions in an APA style format utilizing your textbook, the internet and the information provided within the scenario to support your analysis. Make sure that you thoroughly respond to each goal as well as each of the questions posed within the goal to successfully complete the assignment.

Scenario #1:

The suspect in a robbery was fleeing from police, when he crossed into oncoming traffic and collided head on with John Doe’s truck, severely injuring Doe, and killing himself. Mr. Doe was airlifted to the local hospital burn unit.

Police investigating the robbery and the ensuing accident demanded that hospital personnel draw blood from the victim, John Doe.

The nurse told police that she was not allowed to draw blood from an unconscious patient. She further stated that police did not have a warrant and could therefore not collect blood samples from a badly injured patient. Furthermore, she reiterated that the patient was not conscious, so he could not give consent.

Choose your perspective for this assignment – you may decide to represent the hospital, nurse, victim, or the police.

ARC Assessment Profile
Goal 1: Communication: Define the problem in your own words.
Questions: a. Identify the main idea or problem in the scenario.
(If applicable, include a brief description of the policy and law that was violated).b. Support your choice of the main idea or problem with
details and examples.

c. Organize your findings (details & examples) in a logical and coherent format.
ARC Assessment Profile
Goal 2: Analysis: Compare & contrast the available solutions within the scenario.

 
Questions: a. Identify 2 possible solutions for the issue and/or problem.

b. Compare and contrast the pros and cons for each solution.

c. Choose one solution you believe is the best one for addressing/solving the issue and or problem.
ARC Assessment Profile
Goal 3: Problem Solving: Select one of the available solutions and defend it as your chosen solution.
Questions: a. Defend your chosen solution.

b. Back up your choice through facts and or evidence that support your solution.
ARC Assessment Profile
Goal 4: Evaluation: Identify the weaknesses of your chosen solution. 

 
Questions: a. Identify any areas of weakness within your chosen solution.

b. Identify hidden assumptions and beliefs you may harbor about your choice of solution.
ARC Assessment Profile
Goal 5: Synthesis: Suggest ways to improve/strengthen your chosen solution (may use information not contained within the scenario). 
Questions: a. Identify concepts and ideas from multiple sources that improve or strengthen your solution.

b. Identify any new information and the impact that new information may or may not have on your solution.

c. Identify potential missing information and the impact that missing information may or may not have on your solution.
ARC Assessment Profile
Goal 6: Reflection: Reflect on your own thought process after completing the assignment. 
Questions: a. Identify the strengths and weaknesses in your thought process with this project.

b. Was there bias in your thinking?

c. What did you learn from doing this project?

d. What would you do in a different manner to improve your critical thinking skills process?

Submit your completed assignment into the designated drop box.

 
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Teen Pregnancy: Risks & Resources

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Teen Pregnancy: Risks & Resources

(Teen Pregnancy: Risks & Resources)

Children Having Children Public Service Announcement

In this discussion, you will create a Public Service Announcement (PSA) script and visual aid with at least one interactive link which addresses the issue of teen pregnancy in order to share your continued learning in child development with others.  You will write a script that you feel captures the essence of the issues below and the effects on mother-to-be, father-to-be, as well as the developmental effects on the infant, as if you were providing a PSA on TV or radio. Then, you will create a visual aid which directly addresses and includes the information written in your script. Within your visual aid, you will either link to or embed an interesting video, interactive PDF, sound clip, online assessment, or other tool which can benefit the viewer beyond simply looking at your visual aid.

You will need to be sure to incorporate all of the information in a succinct and straightforward manner while remaining encouraging and positive as you share your learning with others (it is a PSA, after all!).  Unlike a typical written discussion, a Public Service Announcement is persuasive in nature and speaks directly to the audience, encouraging them to read this information and empower themselves (or others) who need it.

First, create a written script which addresses the following:

  • At least one current statistic on teen pregnancy (within the last 3 years).
  • Analyze how at least one of the major themes of Health and Well-Being, Family and Parenting, Education, Culture and Gender positively and negatively influence the developmental physical, cognitive and psychosocial outcomes of teen pregnancy.
  • At least one local and one wide-ranging (i.e. internet or phone) resource from which teens, their friends, or their parents can get more information or assistance regarding teen pregnancy.
  • The script document should include citations in APA format as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center for any information and resources included in the PSA.

Secondly, create a visual presentation which aligns with your PSA on Children having Children which directly addresses and includes the information listed above. To create this visual presentation, read the Quick Start Guides for Prezi and/or Thinglink, or use a more familiar tool like PowerPoint to compile and organize your visual imagery.  Remember, regardless of the mode in which you create your presentation of materials, visuals can be very important powerful (think about some popular Public Service Announcements you’ve seen on TV recently for starving children or mistreated animals) – use them wisely!

Finally, within your visual presentation, link to or embed an interactive tool to enable the viewers to find even more information about this topic. Examples of interactive pieces are video or sound clips, online assessments, or interactive PDFs. Avoid simply linking to websites with additional information, as the goal of this portion of the PSA is to be interactive with the viewer.

After completing your script and presentation for the PSA you will submit your initial post in the following format:

Name:
Title of your PSA:
Link to visual presentation with interactive tool:
(Or – attach visual presentation to discussion by clicking the “add/remove” link below the discussion editing screen.)
Written Script with references:

 
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Cultural Competency

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Cultural Competency

(Cultural Competency)

Title: “Culturally Informed Nursing Practice: Enhancing Patient-Centered Care”

This paper explores how culturally informed nursing practices elevate patient-centered care. By understanding diverse cultural beliefs, values, and practices, nurses can tailor care plans to meet individual needs, fostering trust and improving health outcomes within multicultural healthcare settings.

I need a comment for this, minimun 250 words.

 

Every patient is different in their own unique way. It is our job as nurses to address this to be able to deliver patient-centered care. Part of addressing a patient’s needs is to be culturally competent. When a nurse is culturally aware of their patient’s preferences, they can provide more individualized care.

By providing individualized care, nurses can better help patients achieve desired health outcomes. The ANA website has a good list of questions to ask patients in order to learn more about a patient and their beliefs. An example of the questions they have would be, “What do you think has caused your problem? Why do you think it started when it did?”(Campinha-Bacote, 2011). Many people have different view points on their ailments and what caused it. By asking these simple questions, we can better address what beliefs and cultural stand points our patients have.

Having a patient start out by explaining their perception of the problem is a good beginning. If the patient is unable to explain, the nurse can then ask about any concerns they have about the problem. Next, it is important to learn if the patient has attempted the use of any home remedies or medicines to try and fix the problem. After addressing this, it may be easier going forward on what treatment options the patient may favor.

Overall, nurses are encouraged to keep in mind to be culturally competent to deliver patient-centered care. Utilizing small tools like the ANA websites questionnaire can help shed light on information a nurse needs. This in turn helps construct and enhance nurse to patient interactions when delivering care in the clinical setting.

 
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FNU Pathophysiology Quiz-2

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FNU Pathophysiology Quiz-2

(FNU Pathophysiology Quiz-2)

Question 1

A 70-year-old woman has received a diagnosis of chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) after a clinical investigation sparked by the presence of leukocytosis in her routine blood work. What clinical course should her care provider tell her to expect?

Answers:

A. “It’s likely that this will give you chronic fatigue and malaise for the rest of your life, but that will probably be the extent of your symptoms.”

B. “Unfortunately, your leukemia will likely enter a crisis mode within a few weeks if we don’t treat it immediately.”

C. “You could remain the chronic stage of CML for several years before it accelerates and culminates in a crisis.”

D. “You can expect your blood results, fatigue, and susceptibility to infection to gradually worsen over a few years.”

Question 2

Following an injury resulting in a small cut from a knife, the first cells to go to the area of the cut would be the

Answers:

A. erythrocytes.

B. basophils.

C. neutrophils.

D. albumin.

Question 3

Which of the following diagnostic findings is likely to result in the most serious brain insult?

Answers:

A. Moderate decrease in brain tissue volume secondary to a brain tumor removal

B. High intracellular concentration of glutamate

C. Increased ICP accompanied by hyperventilation

D. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) that equals intracranial pressure (ICP)

Question 4(FNU Pathophysiology Quiz-2)

Which of the following patients would be most likely to be experiencing an increase in renal erythropoietin production?

Answers:

A. A 70-year-old woman admitted with dehydration secondary to an overdose of her potassium-wasting diuretic

B. A 21-year-old man with acute blood loss secondary to a motor vehicle accident 3 hours prior

C. A 68-year-old man with a long-standing diagnosis of polycythemia vera

D. A 71-year-old smoker admitted to hospital with exacerbation of his chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

Question 5

A college student has been experiencing frequent headaches that he describes as throbbing and complaining of difficulty concentrating while studying. Upon cerebral angiography, he is found to have an arteriovenous malformation. Which of the following pathophysiological concepts is likely responsible for his symptoms?

Answers:

A. Localized ischemia with areas of necrosis noted on CT angiography

B. High pressure and local hemorrhage of the venous system

C. Hydrocephalus and protein in the cerebral spinal fluid

D. Increased tissue perfusion at the site of the malformation

Question 6

A group of nursing students were studying for their pathophysiology exam by quizzing each other about disorders of WBCs and lymphoid tissue. When asked what the first chromosomal abnormality that identified cancer was, one student correctly answered Answers:

A. interleukin cells.

B. Philadelphia.

C. PSA.

D. BRCA-1.

Question 7

A 47-year-old woman was diagnosed with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 3 years ago and has experienced a progressive onset and severity of complications. She has been admitted to a palliative care unit due to her poor prognosis? What assessments and interventions should the nursing staff of the unit prioritize in their care?

Answers:

A. Regular pain assessment and administration of opioid analgesics as needed

B. Cardiac monitoring and administration of inotropic medications

C. Assessment and documentation of cognitive changes, including confusion and restlessness

D. Assessment of swallowing ability and respiratory status

Question 8(FNU Pathophysiology Quiz-2)

A 53-year-old man presents with inability to concentrate, itching in his fingers and toes, elevated blood pressure, and unexplained weight loss. He is diagnosed with primary polycythemia. What will be the primary goal of his treatment?

Answers:

A. To increase the amount of oxygen distributed by his red blood cells

B. To reduce the viscosity of his blood

C. To reduce the mean size of his red cells

D. To control his hypertension

Question 9

During a late night study session, a pathophysiology student reaches out to turn the page of her textbook. Which of the following components of her nervous system contains the highest level of control of her arm and hand action?

Answers:

A. Thalamus

B. Cerebellum

C. Frontal lobe

D. Basal ganglia

Question 10

The family members of an elderly patient are wondering why his “blood counts” are not rising after his last GI bleed. They state, “He has always bounced back after one of these episodes, but this time it isn’t happening. Do you know why?” The nurse will respond based on which of the following pathophysiological principles?

Answers:

A. “Don’t worry about it. We can always give him more blood.”

B. “Due to stress, the red blood cells of older adults are not replaced as promptly as younger people.”

C. “Everything slows down when you get older. You just have to wait and see what happens.”

D. “The doctor may start looking for another cause of his anemia, maybe cancer of the bone.”

Question 11

A 44-year-old female patient presents to the emergency department with abnormal bleeding and abdominal pain that is later attributed to gallbladder disease. Which of the following diagnoses would the medical team be most justified in suspecting as a cause of the patient’s bleeding?

Answers:

A. Hemophilia B

B. Vitamin K deficiency

C. Excess calcium

D. Idiopathic immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)

Question 12(FNU Pathophysiology Quiz-2)

Your ESRD patient is receiving 2 units of packed red blood cells for anemia (Hgb of 8.2). Twenty minutes into the first transfusion, the nurse observes the patient has a flushed face, hives over upper body trunk, and is complaining of pain in lower back. His vital signs include pulse rate of 110 and BP drop to 95/56.What is the nurse’s priority action? Answers:

A. Recheck the type of blood infusing with the chart documentation of patient’s blood type. B. Discontinue the transfusion and begin an infusion of normal saline.

C. Slow the rate of the blood infusion to 50 mL/hour.

D. Document the assessment as the only action.

Question 13

A 5th grade elementary student asks the school nurse how much blood is in an entire body. The nurse should respond that the average grown-up adult has

Answers:

A. 2 to 4 cups of blood in his or her body.

B. 5 to 6 L of blood throughout his or her body.

C. 3 pints of blood in total.

D. 3 to 4 quarts of blood in his or her body.

Question 14

The geriatrician providing care for a 74-year-old man with diagnosis of Parkinson disease has recently changed the client’s medication regimen. What is the most likely focus of the pharmacologic treatment of the man’s health problem?

Answers:

A. Preventing demyelination of the efferent cerebellar pathways

B. Preventing axonal degradation of motor neurons

C. Maximizing acetylcholine release from synaptic vesicles at neuromuscular junctions

D. Increasing the functional ability of the underactive dopaminergic system

Question 15

A student makes the statement to a colleague, “Blood plasma is essentially just a carrier for the formed elements like red blood cells and white blood cells.”What would be the most accurate response to this statement?

Answers:

A. “Not really. Plasma also contributes to the processes of protein synthesis and hematopoiesis.”

B. “Actually, plasma plays a significant role in nutrient and waste transport.”

C. “Actually, plasma is integral to the proper function of the liver and maintenance of acid–base balance.”

D. “That’s not really true. Plasma is crucial in the immune and inflammatory responses.”

Question 16(FNU Pathophysiology Quiz-2)

Several months ago, a 20-year-old male suffered a spinal cord injury brought about by a snowboard trick gone wrong. The lasting effects of his injury include a flaccid bowel and bladder and the inability to obtain an erection. While sensation has been completely preserved in his legs and feet, his motor function is significantly impaired. What type of incomplete spinal cord injury has the man most likely experienced?

Answers:

A. Central cord syndrome

B. Conus medullaris syndrome

C. Brown-Séquard syndrome

D. Anterior cord syndrome

Question 17

A client with a gastrointestinal bleed secondary to alcohol abuse and a hemoglobin level of 5.8 g/dL has been ordered a transfusion of packed red blood cells. The client possesses type B antibodies but lacks type D antigens on his red cells. Transfusion of which of the following blood types would be least likely to produce a transfusion reaction?

Answers:

A. A–

B. A

C. B–

D. B

Question 18

Which of the following clients’ signs and symptoms would allow a clinician to be most justified in ruling out stroke as a cause? An adult

Answers:

A. has vomited and complained of a severe headache.

B. states that his left arm and leg are numb, and gait is consequently unsteady.

C. has experienced a sudden loss of balance and slurred speech.

D. has had a gradual onset of weakness, headache, and visual disturbances over the last 2 days.

Question 19

Amniocentesis has suggested that a couple’s first child will be born with sickle cell disease. The parents are unfamiliar with the health problem, and their caregiver is explaining the complexities. Which of the following statements by the parents would suggest a need for further teaching or clarification?

Answers:

A. “Our baby’s red cells are prone to early destruction because of his or her weak membranes.”

B. “Our son or daughter likely won’t show the effects of sickling until he or she is school-aged because of the different hemoglobin in babies.”

C. “Not all of his or her red cells will be sickled, but low oxygen levels can cause them to become so.”

D. “Sickled cells can block his or her blood vessels, especially in the abdomen, chest, and bones.”

Question 20(FNU Pathophysiology Quiz-2)

During science class, a student asks, “What’s the difference between plasma and serum in the blood?” The nurse responds that the primary difference between plasma and serum is that plasma contains

Answers:

A. hydrogen ions.

B. heparin.

C. white blood cells.

D. fibrinogen.

Question 21

During a flu shot clinic, one of the questions the student nurse asks relates to whether the patient has had Guillain-Barré syndrome in his medical history. The patient asks, “What is that?” How should the nursing student reply?

Answers:

A. “A type of paralysis that affects movement on both sides of the body that may even involve the respiratory muscles”

B. “Influenza-like illness where you had fever and chills for 2 to 3 days after your last flu shot”

C. “A degenerative disease where you have trouble walking without the help of a cane or walker”

D. “Swelling of your arm where you got your flu shot, and maybe your eyes and lips had some swelling as well”

Question 22

A 22-year-old female college student is shocked to receive a diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. What are the etiology and most likely treatment for her health problem?

Answers:

A. Excess acetylcholinesterase production; treatment with thymectomy

B. A decline in functioning acetylcholine receptors; treatment with corticosteroids and intravenous immunoglobulins

C. Cerebellar lesions; surgical and immunosuppressive treatment

D. Autoimmune destruction of skeletal muscle cells; treatment with intensive physical therapy and anabolic steroids

Question 23

A baseball player was hit in the head with a bat during practice. In the emergency department, the physician tells the family that he has a “coup”injury. How will the nurse explain this to the family so they can understand?

Answers:

A. “It’s like squeezing an orange so tight that the juice runs out of the top.”

B. “When the bat hit his head, his neck jerked backward causing injury to the spine.”

C. “Your son has a contusion of the brain at the site where the bat hit his head.”

D. “Your son has a huge laceration inside his brain where the bat hit his skull.”

Question 24(FNU Pathophysiology Quiz-2)

Which of the following glycoproteins is responsible for treating such diseases as bone marrow failure following chemotherapy and hematopoietic neoplasms such as leukemia? Answers:

A. Growth factors and cytokines

B. T lymphocytes and natural killer cells

C. Neutrophils and eosinophils

D. Natural killer cells and granulocytes

Question 25

While being on subcutaneous heparin injections for deep vein thrombosis during her latter pregnancy, a patient begins to experience major side effects. Her OB-GYN physician has called in a specialist who thinks that the patient is experiencing heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. The nurse should anticipate which of the following orders?

Answers:

A. Immediately discontinue the heparin therapy

B. Switch to Coumadin 2.5 mg once/day

C. Decrease the dose of heparin from 5000 units b.i.d to 3000 units b.i.d

D. Infuse FFP stat

Question 26

Which of the following individuals would most likely experience global ischemia to his or her brain?

Answers:

A. A woman who is being brought to hospital by ambulance following suspected carbon monoxide poisoning related to a faulty portable heater

B. A male client who has just had an ischemic stroke confirmed by CT of his head

C. A woman who has been admitted to the emergency department with a suspected intracranial bleed

D. A man who has entered cardiogenic shock following a severe myocardial infarction

Question 27

A new mother and father are upset that their 2-day-old infant is requiring phototherapy for hyperbilirubinemia. The pediatrician who has followed the infant since birth is explaining the multiplicity of factors that can contribute to high serum bilirubin levels in neonates. Which of the following factors would the physician be most likely to rule out as a contributor?

Answers:

A. Transitioning of hemoglobin F (HbF) to hemoglobin A (HbA)

B. Hepatic immaturity of the infant

C. Hypoxia

D. The fact that the infant is being breast-fed

Question 28(FNU Pathophysiology Quiz-2)

A 14-year-old boy has been diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis. Which of the following pathophysiological phenomena is most responsible for his symptoms?

Answers:

A. Viruses are killing some of his B cells and becoming incorporated into the genome of others.

B. The Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is lysing many of the boy’s neutrophils.

C. The virus responsible for mononucleosis inhibits the maturation of myeloblasts into promyelocytes.

D. The EBV inhibits the maturation of white cells within his peripheral lymph nodes.

Question 29

A 16-year-old female has been brought to her primary care physician by her mother due to the girl’s persistent sore throat and malaise. Which of the following facts revealed in the girl’s history and examination would lead the physician to rule out infectious mononucleosis?

Answers:

A. Chest auscultation reveals crackles in her lower lung fields bilaterally.

B. Her liver and spleen are both enlarged.

C. Blood work reveals an increased white blood cell count.

D. The girl has a temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F) and has enlarged lymph nodes.

Question 30

A 30-year-old woman who has given birth 12 hours prior is displaying signs and symptoms of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). The client’s husband is confused as to why a disease of coagulation can result in bleeding. Which of the nurse’s following statements best characterizes DIC?

Answers:

A. “The same hormones and bacteria that cause clotting also cause bleeding.”

B. “Massive clotting causes irritation, friction, and bleeding in the small blood vessels.”

C. “So much clotting takes place that there are no available clotting components left, and bleeding ensues.”

D. “Excessive activation of clotting causes an overload of vital organs, resulting in bleeding.”

Question 31

A 20-year-old has been diagnosed with an astrocytic brain tumor located in the brain stem. Which of the following statements by the oncologist treating the client is most accurate?

Answers:

A. “Our treatment plan will depend on whether your tumor is malignant or benign.”

B. “This is likely a result of a combination of heredity and lifestyle.”

C. “The major risk that you face is metastases to your lungs, liver, or bones.”

D. “Your prognosis will depend on whether we can surgically resect your tumor.”

Question 32(FNU Pathophysiology Quiz-2)

A patient diagnosed with low-risk chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) has recently developed thrombocytopenia. One of the medications utilized to treat this would be Answers:

A. cisplatin, a chemotherapeutic.

B. vincristine, a Vinca alkaloid.

C. dexamethasone, a corticosteroid.

D. doxorubicin, a cytotoxic antibiotic.

Question 33

Two nursing students are attempting to differentiate between the presentations of immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) and thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP). Which of the students’ following statements best captures an aspect of the two health problems? Answers:

A. “ITP can be either inherited or acquired, and if it’s acquired, it involves an enzyme deficiency.”

B. “Both of them involve low platelet counts, but in TTP, there can be more, not less, hemostasis.

C. “TTP can be treated with plasmapheresis, but ITP is best addressed with transfusion of fresh frozen plasma.”

D. “Both diseases can result from inadequate production of thrombopoietin by megakaryocytes.”

Question 34

A physician is explaining to a 40-year-old male patient the importance of completing his course of antibiotics for the treatment of tuberculosis. The physician explains the damage that could occur to lung tissue by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Which of the following phenomena would underlie the physician’s explanation?

Answers:

A. Tissue destruction results from neutrophil deactivation.

B. Neutrophils are ineffective against the Mycobacterium tuberculosis antigens.

C. Macrophages form a capsule around the Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacteria, resulting in immune granulomas.

D. Nonspecific macrophage activity leads to pulmonary tissue destruction and resulting hemoptysis.

Question 35

A teenager, exposed to West Nile virus a few weeks ago while camping with friends, is admitted with headache, fever, and nuchal rigidity. The teenager is also displaying some lethargy and disorientation. The nurse knows which of the following medical diagnoses listed below may be associated with these clinical manifestations?

Answers:

A. Encephalitis

B. Lyme disease

C. Rocky Mountain spotted fever

D. Spinal infection

Question 36(FNU Pathophysiology Quiz-2)

A patient has been diagnosed with anemia. The physician suspects an immune hemolytic anemia and orders a Coombs test. The patient asks the nurse what this test will tell the doctor. The nurse replies,

Answers:

A. “They are looking for the presence of antibody or complement on the surface of the RBC.”

B. “They will look at your RBCs under a microscope to see if they have an irregular shape (poikilocytosis).”

C. “They will wash your RBCs and then mix the cells with a reagent to see if they clump together.”

D. “They will be looking to see if you have enough ferritin in your blood.”

Question 37

A 29-year-old construction worker got a sliver under his fingernail 4 days ago. The affected finger is now reddened, painful, swollen, and warm to touch. Which of the following hematological processes is most likely occurring in the bone marrow in response to the infection?

Answers:

A. Phagocytosis by myelocytes

B. Increased segmented neutrophil production

C. High circulatory levels of myeloblasts

D. Proliferation of immature neutrophils

Question 38(FNU Pathophysiology Quiz-2)

A surgeon is explaining to the parents of a 6-year-old boy the rationale for the suggestion of removing the boy’s spleen. Which of the following teaching points would be most accurate?

Answers:

A.“We think that his spleen is inhibiting the production of platelets by his bone marrow.”

B.“We believe that your son’s spleen is causing the destruction of many of his blood platelets, putting him at a bleeding risk.”

C.“Your son’s spleen is holding on to too many of his platelets, so they’re not available for clotting.”

D.“Your son’s spleen is inappropriately filtering out the platelets from his blood and keeping them from normal circulation.”

Question 39 A nurse practitioner is providing care for a client with low levels of the plasma protein gamma globulin. The nurse would recognize that the client is at risk of developing which of the following health problems?

Answers:

A. Anemia

B. Blood clots

C. Jaundice

D. Infections

Question 40

A 32-year-old woman presents at her neighborhood health clinic complaining of weakness and a feeling of abdominal fullness. She reports that 6 months earlier she noticed that she had difficulty in maintaining the high level of energy she has relied on during her aerobic workouts over the past few years. Because she felt that she was in overall good health, but knew that women often need additional iron, she added a multiple vitamin with iron and some meat and leafy greens to her diet. She followed her plan carefully but had no increase in energy. Upon examination, her spleen is noted to be enlarged. Which of the following is most likely to be the cause?

Answers:

A. CLL

B. Accelerated CML

C. Infectious mononucleosis

D. Stage A Hodgkin disease

Question 41

A nurse is providing care for several patients on an acute medical unit of a hospital.Which of the following patients would be most likely to benefit from hematopoietic growth factors?

Answers:

A. A 61-year-old female patient with end-stage renal cancer

B. A 55-year-old obese male patient with peripheral neuropathy secondary to diabetes

C. A 51-year-old female patient with liver failure secondary to hepatitis

D. A 44-year-old man with a newly diagnosed brain tumor

Question 42(FNU Pathophysiology Quiz-2)

Misinterpreting her physician’s instructions, a 69-year-old woman with a history of peripheral artery disease has been taking two 325 mg tablets of aspirin daily. How has this most likely affected her hemostatic status?

Answers:

A. The binding of an antibody to platelet factor IV produces immune complexes.

B. The patient’s prostaglandin (TXA2) levels are abnormally high.

C. Irreversible acetylation of platelet cyclooxygenase activity has occurred.

D. She is at risk of developing secondary immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP).

Question 43 Which of the following teaching points would be most appropriate with a client who has a recent diagnosis of von Willebrand disease?

Answers:

A. “Make sure that you avoid taking aspirin.”

B. “Your disease affects your platelet function rather than clot formation.”

C. “Clotting factor VIII can help your body compensate for the difficulty in clotting.”

D. “It’s important that you avoid trauma.”

Question 44

A nurse at a long-term care facility provides care for an 85-year-old man who has had recent transient ischemic attacks (TIAs). Which of the following statements best identifies future complications associated with TIAs? TIAs

Answers:

A. are caused by small bleeds that can be a warning sign of an impending stroke.

B. are a relatively benign sign that necessitates monitoring but not treatment.

C. are an accumulation of small deficits that may eventually equal the effects of a full CVA. D. resolve rapidly but may place the client at an increased risk for stroke.

Question 45

Following a motor vehicle accident 3 months prior, a 20-year-old female who has been in a coma since her accident has now had her condition declared a persistent vegetative state. How can her care providers most accurately explain an aspect of her situation to her parents?

Answers:

A. “If you or the care team notices any spontaneous eye opening, then we will change our treatment plan.”

B. “Your daughter has lost all her cognitive functions as well as all her basic reflexes.”

C. “Though she still goes through a cycle of sleeping and waking, her condition is unlikely to change.”

D. “Your daughter’s condition is an unfortunate combination with total loss of consciousness but continuation of all other normal brain functions.”

Question 46(FNU Pathophysiology Quiz-2)

A couple who is expecting their first child has been advised by friends to consider harvesting umbilical cord blood in order to have a future source of stem cells. The couple has approached their caregiver with this request and is seeking clarification of exactly why stem cells are valuable and what they might expect to gain from harvesting it. How can their caregiver best respond to the couple’s enquiry? Stem cells can

Answers:

A. “be used as source of reserve cells for the entire blood production system.”

B. “help treat some cancers and anemias, but they must come from your child himself or herself.”

C. “be used to regenerate damaged organs should the need ever arise.”

D. “help correct autoimmune diseases and some congenital defects.”

Question 47 A surgeon is explaining to the parents of a 6-year-old boy the rationale for the suggestion of removing the boy’s spleen. Which of the following teaching points would be most accurate?

Answers:

A. “Ferritin is a protein–iron complex that allows your red blood cells to make use of the iron that you consume in your diet.”

B. “Ferritin is the activated and usable form of iron that your red blood cells can use to transport oxygen.”

C. “Ferritin is the form of iron that is transported in your blood plasma to red blood cells that need it.”

D. “Ferritin is a stored form of iron that indirectly shows me whether you would benefit from iron pills.”

Question 48

A 13-year-old African American boy comes to the ER complaining of fatigue and a rapid heartbeat. In conversation with the father, it becomes apparent to you that the boy has grown 2 inches in the previous 5 months. What is the first problem the health care team would attempt to rule out?

Answers:

A. Aplastic anemia

B. Sickle cell anemia

C. Thalassemia

D. Iron deficiency anemia

Question 49

In which of the following patients, would diagnostic investigations least likely reveal increased thrombopoietin production?

Answers:

A. A 55-year-old man with dehydration secondary to Crohn disease

B. An 81-year-old woman with diagnoses of rheumatoid arthritis and failure to thrive

C. A 66-year-old woman with a diagnosis of lung cancer with bone metastases

D. A 21-year-old woman awaiting bone marrow transplant for myelogenous leukemia

Question 50(FNU Pathophysiology Quiz-2)

A hospital laboratory technologist is analyzing the complete blood count (CBC) of a patient. Which of the following statements best reflects an aspect of the platelets that would constitute part of the CBC?

Answers:

A. New platelets are released from the bone marrow into circulation.

B. The half-life of a platelet is typically around 8 to 12 days.

C. Platelets originate with granulocyte colony–forming units (CFU).

D. The α-granules of platelets contribute primarily to vasoconstriction.

 
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Construct Measurement: Scale Development

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Construct Measurement: Scale Development

(Construct Measurement: Scale Development)

Posted for Dr Candice_2547InstructionsFor this task, complete the readings for this assignment, and then write a paper in which you complete the following:

Construct measurement involves developing scales to quantify abstract concepts like attitudes or behaviors. Scale development entails creating items, assessing their reliability and validity through statistical analyses and testing, refining the scale based on feedback, and establishing its psychometric properties to ensure accurate and consistent measurement of the construct of interest.

Instructions

For this task, complete the   readings for this assignment, and then write a paper in which you complete   the following:

  1. Write an introduction that        examines the construct, its conceptual definition/s, and related        concepts.
  2. Review the literature and the        existing tools that measure the construct.
  3. Provide justification for        your original scale.
  4. Discuss how you intend to        construct the items, cognizant of the basic principles of item pool        construction, the necessity of SMEs, the unidimensionality or        multidimensionality of the construct, etc.
  5. Write at least 20 sample        items that represent the construct you are planning to measure. You may        construct negatively-worded items, but indicate these in a chart or        table. If the construct you choose has two or more dimensions under it,        write sample items indicating which items fall under which dimension.        (See for example, the Life Position Scale that contained four dimensions        I’m OK etc. at first, but after factor analysis the dimensions reduced        to two—I and You.) These are attached to the assignment
  6. Argue for a specific method        of running an item analysis procedure.
  7. Argue for at least two        specific methods of establishing your scale’s validity (Choose at least        one method for construct validity, and another method for        criterion-related validity. In criterion validation, it is not enough to        simply write that you are planning to employ the method. Be sure to        specify the variable(s) you will correlate your scale with.

Length: 10-15 pages

Your assignment should demonstrate   thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts by providing new thoughts   and insights relating directly to this topic. Your response should reflect   scholarly writing and current APA standards.

Due: October 17, 2018 by 4pm EST

 
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