Joints Laboratory Assignment

Real Anatomy

Joints

 

1) Identify the type of joint highlighted in this image.

__________________

 

Macintosh HD:Users:kdutta:Downloads:fetal-skull-anterola.jpg

 

2) Identify the classification of the highlighted joint.

__________________; __________________

 

Macintosh HD:Users:kdutta:Downloads:fetal-skull-anterola.jpg

 

3) Identify the type of joint highlight in this image.

__________________

 

Macintosh HD:Users:kdutta:Downloads:crural-interosseous--1.jpg

 

4) Identify the classification of the highlighted joint.

__________________

 

Macintosh HD:Users:kdutta:Downloads:crural-interosseous--1.jpg

 

5) Identify the joint at the epiphyseal plate inside the highlighted area.

__________________; __________________

 

Macintosh HD:Users:kdutta:Downloads:femur-pelvis-frontal-Epiphysis.jpg

 

6) Identify the classification of the joint at the epiphyseal plate inside the highlighted area.

__________________

 

Macintosh HD:Users:kdutta:Downloads:femur-pelvis-frontal-Epiphysis.jpg

 

7) Identify the highlighted joints.

__________________

 

Macintosh HD:Users:kdutta:Downloads:pelvis-anterior-view-pubis.jpg

 

8) Identify the classification of the highlighted joint.

__________________

 

Macintosh HD:Users:kdutta:Downloads:pelvis-anterior-view-pubis.jpg

 

9) Identify the type of joint depicted by the head of the highlighted bone.

__________________

 

Macintosh HD:Users:kdutta:Downloads:frontal-section-Elbow.jpg

 

10) Identify the type of joint depicted by the highlighted area.

__________________

 

Macintosh HD:Users:kdutta:Downloads:knee-joint-lateral-v-1.jpg

 

11) Identify the highlighted structure.

__________________

 

Macintosh HD:Users:kdutta:Downloads:knee-joint-lateral-v-1.jpg

 

12) Identify the structural classification of the joint between the highlighted bone and the surrounding bones.

__________________

 

Macintosh HD:Users:kdutta:Downloads:Real-Anatomy-Fig:limb-upper:hand-anterior-view.jpg

 

13) Identify the structural classification of the joint formed by the highlighted area.

__________________

 

Macintosh HD:Users:kdutta:Downloads:Real-Anatomy-Fig:limb-upper:radius-and-ulna-post-olecrann-radialhead.jpg

 

14) Identify the structural classification of the joint formed by the highlighted area.

__________________

 

Macintosh HD:Users:kdutta:Downloads:Real-Anatomy-Fig:limb-upper:humerus-anterior-vie-trochlea.jpg

 

15) Identify the structural classification of the joint formed by the highlighted area.

__________________

 

Macintosh HD:Users:kdutta:Downloads:Real-Anatomy-Fig:limb-upper:scapula-lateral-view-glenoid.jpg

 
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Assignment # 1282la3

4 pages

Review the Request for Proposal content discussed in Chapter 7 of your textbook and watch the Request for Proposal video.

Review the assignment details provided in the Introduction and Resources, Course Project Overview and Week 5 instructions.

Review the sample RFP template found in Files: Health Information Systems and Networks with Lab: HIM335_W5_RFP_Template.pdf.

You will play the role of an outside consultant for the Medical Center of DeVry to evaluate the RFP to determine whether all essential parts of the RFP are present, then identify the strengths and weaknesses found in the document and how the document can be improved. Next, you will prepare a professional report that outlines the steps to be taken in the RFP process with a summary of your findings.

Submit your assignment as a Word document.

Written Assignment: Request for Proposal (RFP) (70 points)

Given a sample RFP template, you will play the role of an outside consultant for the Medical Center of DeVry to evaluate the RFP to determine whether all essential parts of the RFP are present, then identify the strengths and weaknesses found in the document and how the document can be improved. Next, you will prepare a professional report that outlines the steps to be taken in the RFP process, along with a summary of your findings in the sample report. The sample RFP template is located in Files. The RFP may include several items not requested in your assignment.

  • Part A: Evaluation of RFP to determine whether all essential parts of present (20 points)
  • Part B: Identification of strengths and weaknesses (20 points)
  • Part C: Professional report and summary of findings (20 points)

Portal link:

https://learn.devry.edu/home

User Name: D40838584

password: Sheblues1977@

Go for HIM335 in the syllabus tab; there is the textbook

 
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Biological Concepts BI101

WEEK 8 EXPERIMENT ANSWER SHEET Please submit to the Week 8 Experiment dropbox no later than Sunday midnight.

SUMMARY OF ACTIVITIES FOR WEEK 8 EXPERIMENT ASSIGNMENT

· Experiment 8 Exercise 1 – Species Interactions: Competition

· Experiment 8 Exercise 2 – Biomes (Part I and II)

Experiment 8 Exercise 1: Species Interactions: Competition

In this exercise you will be evaluating the effect of competition on the population size of two species of microorganisms. Be sure you have read through the readings for Week 8 as well as the introductory information for the Week 8 Experiment.

You will use the following data to answer the questions.

Table 1.

  Grown Separately (cells per ml) Grown Together (cells/ml)
Day P. caudatum P. aurelia P. caudatum P. aurelia
0 2 2 2 2
2 10 8 10 6
4 28 50 20 66
6 50 86 20 80
8 60 96 16 80
10 58 100 6 88
12 58 96 4 94
14 58 96 0 96
16 58 98 0 96

A. Now it is time to analyze your data.

a. You will need to generate two graphs, one which depicts the number of both species per day of culture when grown separately and one that depicts the number of both species per day of culture when grown together.

b. You must use the Scatter type graph in Excel and each graph should have two lines (one for each species).

c. Be sure you label your axes and your series; meaning you will need to indicate which line pertains to P. caudatum and which to P. aurelia.

Paste your two graphs below (4 pts):

Questions

1. What were the dependent and independent variables for the experiment? (2 pts)

2. What were the carrying capacities (maximum population size) for the two species when grown separately and on what day were they reached (2 pts)?

3. Describe what happened when the two species were grown together and explain why. Be sure to discuss the magnitude and timing of each species’ carrying capacity compared to when they were grown separately (4 pts).

4. Do these results support the principle of competitive exclusion; why or why not? Be sure to cite your sources. (4 pts).

5. Think about what would if additional food was placed in the test tube containing both the species. How might this change the results? (2 pts)

Experiment 8 Exercise 2: Biomes

In these two relatively short exercises, we will be examining the biotic and abiotic factors that define a biome. You should have completed the readings for this week before beginning.

Procedure – Part I: The Great Graph Match

A. Open the following website:

NASA. No date. The Great Graph Match http://earthobservatory.nasa.gov/Experiments/Biome/graphmatch_advanced.php

B. In the Great Graph Match, you will need to match abiotic information (annual rainfall and temperatures) to the appropriate biome. Follow the instructions on the page and fill-in the Table below. For the Explanation column, you need to briefly explain why you chose the biome you did based on the data presented.

C. Be sure to provide complete citations for the sources used.

Table 2. Locations, biomes and explanations (4 pts).

Location Biome Explanation
Frogmore, England    
Goteborg, Sweden    
Koombooloomba, Australia    
Barrow, Alaska    
Alice Springs, Australia    
San Bernadino, California    
Centralia, Kansas    

Citations:

Procedure – Part II: To Plant or Not to Plant

A. Open the following website:

NASA. No date. To Plant or Not to Plant https://earthobservatory.nasa.gov/biome/plantindex.php

B. In the To Plant or not to Plant, you will need to determine which in which biomes to plant various plants, based on the information presented. Follow the instructions on the page and fill-in the Table below. For the Explanation column, you need to briefly explain why you chose the biome you did.

C. Be sure to provide complete citations for the sources used.

Table 3. Plants, biomes and explanations (4 pts).

Plant Biome Explanation
Creosote bush    
Spruce    
Flowering dogwood    
Orchid    
Lichen    
Bluestem grasses    
White sage    
Saguaro cactus    

Citations:

 

Week 8 Experiment Grading Rubric

Component Expectation Points
Experiment 8 Exercise 1 Correctly generates two graphs. 4 pts
Experiment 8 Exercise 1 Demonstrates an understanding competition between species and the effect it has on population growth (Questions 1-5). 14 pts
Experiment 8 Exercise 2 Develops an appreciation of the diversity of ecosystems around the globe and understands the environmental conditions that lead to their development (Tables 2 and 3). 8 pts
TOTAL  

26 pts

Updated October 2013

 
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Case Study

Write a paper of at least 400 words not including headers, footers, or pasted prompts answering the following questions:
1. Read the following case study: Case Study 2
PSY 101 Case Study 2
Freda is a second year college student and part-time model. She is studying biochemistry, and has a high GPA. She has been modeling for four years and has recently been approached by a modeling firm in London. They would like to offer her a great deal of money to work for them, but she would have to put her college plans on hold.
Freda’s mother thinks she should go to London and experience the world for a while. “Biochemistry will still be here when you get back,” she says. In reality, her mother hopes that the proceeds from modeling job will help get their family home out of foreclosure. Freda is aware of this and wants to help her mother.
Freda’s situation is complicated by her bulimia. She knows that if she takes the modeling career, she will be faced with criticism of her size and attractiveness. She is naturally shy, and as a high profile model, she will have little privacy.
Analyze the different psychological factors related to motivation at work in this case.
2. Write an analysis of the motivational and emotional factors that are involved in the case. In particular, consider:
What factors are motivating Freda to accept the job in London?
How might these motivational and emotional factors affect Freda’s decision? Please be sure to not neglect discussing Freda’s bulimia, referencing this particular eating disorder in Chapter 9-2d in your textbook.
What incentives and drawbacks do each of Freda’s choices come with?
Submit your work to your instructor.
Grading Rubric
Case_Study40points.docx Download Case_Study40points.docx
Submission Guidelines
Only doc, docx, and odt file types are accepted – PDF files are not accepted. You may download Microsoft Office for free under Pages.
Rubric
Case Study Grading Rubric 40 points
Case Study Grading Rubric 40 points
Criteria Ratings Pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning Outcome Analysis of Case
15 to >13.5 pts
Expert
The analysis of the case demonstrates a full understanding of textbook concepts. Writer is able to analyze the case subject objectively and without personal bias.
13.5 to >12.0 pts
Proficient
The analysis of the case demonstrates a good understanding of textbook concepts. Writer is able to analyze the case subject with little bias and attempts to translate the case into larger psychological disorders and therapies.
12 to >11.25 pts
Apprentice
The analysis of the case demonstrates a moderate understanding of textbook concepts. Writer misinterprets no more that 1 section of the case prompt. Their analysis of the subject seems somewhat subjective.
11.25 to >0 pts
Novice
The writer does not analyze the case fully using textbook concepts. The writer misinterprets at least 1 section of the case prompt. The writer makes diagnostic errors and analyzes case with bias or with a misunderstanding of textbook concepts.
15 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning Outcome Writing Content
15 to >13.5 pts
Expert
Writing ties together information from textbook. The case study covers all questions in the prompt fully. Paper flows from one issue to the next without the need for headings. Paper is at least 400 words.
13.5 to >12.0 pts
Proficient
Writing generally ties together information from the textbook. The case study covers all questions in the prompt fully. Paper is somewhat disjointed and does not flow between sections. Paper is at least 400 words.
12 to >11.25 pts
Apprentice
The case study sometimes ties together information from all sources. Paper does not flow – disjointedness is apparent. Author’s writing does not demonstrate an understanding of the relationship among material obtained from all sources. Paper is at least 400 words.
11.25 to >0 pts
Novice
Author does not tie together information. Paper does not flow and appears to be created from disparate issues and sources. It does not answer all questions in the prompt. Paper is less than 400 words.
15 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning Outcome Spelling & Grammar
5 pts
Full Marks
No spelling &/or grammar mistakes.
0 pts
No Marks
Contains more than one spelling &/or grammar mistake.
5 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning Outcome APA Style Citations
5 pts
Full Marks
Cites all data obtained from other sources. APA citation style is used in both in-text citations and bibliography.
0 pts
No Marks
Does not cite every source in both in-text citations and bibliography.
5 pts

 
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Blood Transfusions

  1. Blood transfusions are sometimes required in healthcare. Based on what you know about blood anatomy discuss why a patient would need a transfusion of PRBC (packed red blood cells), plasma, or platelets. A patient with anemia has a pulse oximetry reading in the high 80’s, would this be an expected finding, explain?
  2. Mike, 29 years old, was admitted to a community hospital three days ago with weakness and hypotension after sustaining a spider bite while hiking in the woods. Mike has a large hematoma on his left arm where he was bite. He has no prior medical history, no drug allergies, and does not take medication. Mike started to experience moderate respiratory distress, and started oozing blood from his IV sites, nose, and catheter. He is mildly jaundice and his skin is cool. His vital signs include a heart rate of 110 beats per minute and regular blood pressure of 92/44, slightly labored respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute, and a pulse oximetry reading of 91 percent. What would your initial diagnosis be, explain? What diagnostic test would you order and why? What would you expect the diagnostic test to show? What is the treatment option for the diagnosis?
  3. During natural disasters like hurricanes, when the community is living in shelters, why would there be a concern about a tuberculosis outbreak? What circumstances have led to the spread of drug-resistant tuberculosis? Mary, a nurse, skin test was positive for tuberculosis. Does this mean she has tuberculosis? Explain.
  4. Each year many people go to their family physician with a common cold, but think they have the influenza. Based on symptoms how can you tell if you have a common cold or influenza? What are the causes and treatments for Pneumonia? What is the best way to prevent influenza and pneumonia?
 
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Need Help With Biology Lap

Pre-Lab Questions

 

 

What major event occurs during interphase?

A person, residing in a location where they are exposed to the sun often, develops a mutation in some of their skin cells resulting in cancer. Consider whether their offspring will be born with the same mutation. Use scientific evidence to support your answer.

 

Experiment 1: Following Chromosomal DNA Movement through Meiosis

Data Tables and Post-Lab Assessment

Part 1 – Meiotic Division Beads Diagram without Crossing Over

Prophase I

 

Metaphase I

 

Anaphase I

 

Telophase I

 

Prophase II

 

Metaphase II

 

Anaphase II

 

Telophase II

 

Cytokinesis

 

Part 2: Meiotic Division Beads Diagram with Crossing Over

Prophase I

 

Metaphase I

 

Anaphase I

 

Telophase I

 

Prophase II

 

Metaphase II

 

Anaphase II

 

Telophase II

 

Cytokinesis

 

 

Post-Lab Questions

 

1. What is the ploidy of the DNA at the end of meiosis I? What about at the end of meiosis II?

 

2. How are meiosis I and meiosis II different?

 

3. Why do you use non-sister chromatids to demonstrate crossing over?

 

4. What combinations of alleles could result from a crossover between BD and bd chromosomes?

 

 

 

5. How many chromosomes were present when meiosis I started?

 

6. How many nuclei are present at the end of meiosis II? How many chromosomes are in each?

 

7. Identify two ways that meiosis contributes to genetic recombination.

 

8. Why is it necessary to reduce the number of chromosomes in gametes, but not in other cells?

 

9. Blue whales have 44 chromosomes in every cell. Determine how many chromosomes you would expect to find in the following:

 

Sperm Cell:

 

Egg Cell:

 

Daughter Cell from Meiosis I:

Daughter Cell from Meiosis II:

 

10.Research and find a disease that is caused by chromosomal mutations. When does the mutation occur? What chromosomes are affected? What are the consequences?

 

11.Diagram what would happen if sexual reproduction took place for four generations using diploid (2n) cells.

 

 

Experiment 2: The Importance of Cell Cycle Control

 

Data

Post-Lab Questions

 

1. Record your hypothesis from Step 1 in the Procedure section here.

 

 

2. What do your results indicate about cell cycle control?

 

 

3. Suppose a person developed a mutation in a somatic cell which diminishes the performance of the body’s natural cell cycle control proteins. This mutation resulted in cancer, but was effectively treated with a cocktail of cancer-fighting techniques. Is it possible for this person’s future children to inherit this cancer-causing mutation? Be specific when you explain why or why not.

 

 

4. Why do cells which lack cell cycle control exhibit karyotypes which look physically different than cells with normal cell cycle.

 

 

5. What are HeLa cells? Why are HeLa cells appropriate for this experiment?

 
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3 Biology Essays And 2 Biology Labs

Assignment 1

Select a journal article on the subject of supplements and write a summary paper reviewing the article. You are encouraged, but not required, to use Senchina’s 2013 article “Athletics and Herbal Supplements,” linked in the Resources, under the Library Resources heading, for this article review. Note: If you choose to review an article other than the “Athletics and Herbal Supplements” reading, you may need to do further research in order to fully address all of the topics required for this paper.

Address all of the following points in your article review:

· What are the main points presented in the article? What message is the author trying to convey? What are the specific areas of research and findings that the article highlights?

· How could the supplements discussed in the article affect cells and body systems?

· How are supplements used in different areas of athletics? Why are supplements currently unregulated? Based on your readings, do you think supplements should undergo more stringent testing? If so, how would this be monitored and paid for? Where in your life (or in the life of a friend or family member) is it important that supplements are tested? Note: Your answer to this question does not need to apply only to athletics.

· Crosscheck the information in your article with other sources. What do other sources say about the same concepts presented in the article? Are there discrepancies between the information from the article and from other sources?

· Complete an evaluation of your article, using either the Source Evaluation Form: Web Sites or the Source Evaluation Form: Journals and Books, both of which are linked in the Resources under the Resources heading. Download the appropriate form and answer the questions.

· In an additional paragraph or two, answer the following questions:

· Would you consider this article to be a credible source of information on this topic? Why or why not?

Formatting Requirements

· Written communication: Written communication should be free of errors that detract from the overall message.

· APA formatting: References and citations should be formatted according to APA (6th edition) style and formatting.

· Font and font size: Times New Roman, 12-point.

· Length: Your paper should be between 500 and 700 words in length.

· Format: Either submit both the Article Review paper and the completed Source Evaluation Form, or write a paragraph into your paper addressing the questions from the form.

 

 

 

 

Assignment 2

Fundamentally, cancer is a failure of the immune system. Cancer kills because it spreads and disturbs homeostasis. For this assessment, select, research, and then describe a specific type of cancer occurring in either the digestive system or endocrine system. Note: If you choose the digestive system, you may discuss a cancer of the primary digestive system or that of an accessory organ. To select the specific type of cancer you wish to research for this assessment, you are encouraged to refer to the materials linked in the Resources.

In order to complete this assessment, you will need to find high-quality, appropriate, and credible research resources on a specific type of cancer. If you conduct Internet research outside the library, your resources must be reliable. The “Top 100 List: Health Websites You Can Trust” article, linked in the Resources under the Internet Resources heading, will be of particular help in selecting appropriate sources.

Assessment points will be deducted for citing unreliable sources such as Wikipedia, or other sites based on user-generated content. These sites are not peer-reviewed, and, in the case of Wikipedia, anyone can add an entry or change an entry. Hence, these types of sources should not be cited in college-level research papers. However, you may find Wikipedia useful as a starting point for your Internet research, as Wikipedia entries may provide links to other resources that are reputable and reliable.

Based on your research, write a paper that addresses all of the following:

· Identify the type of cancer of the endocrine or digestive system that you have researched. Which cancer did you choose, and what part of the body does that cancer affect?

· What are the biological changes that occur at the level of the cell that result in this type of cancer? What are the biological changes that occur at the level of the major organ as this cancer progresses?

· What characteristics of cancer cells distinguish them from normal cells?

· Consider how the disease affects the body as it progresses or spreads. What are some specific aspects of homeostasis that the spreading disease could affect? What self-regulating systems are upset because of this disease?

· Which therapies are available for treatment for this specific type of cancer? How do these therapies work biologically to treat this type of cancer?

· What are some lifestyle choices that might aid in prevention or treatment of this type of cancer? How do you incorporate these lifestyle choices in your daily life?

· How are the biological changes of this cancer, at the level of the cell and organ, similar to and different from changes in other types of cancer?

Formatting Requirements

· Written communication: Written communication should be free of errors that detract from the overall message.

· APA formatting: References and citations should be formatted according to APA (6th edition) style and formatting.

· Font and font size: Times New Roman, 12-point.

Assignment 3

Search the Internet for an article from a reputable source about a specific genetically modified organism, such as one of the following (you are welcome to choose topics outside of this list):

·

· Corn.

· Potato.

· Soy.

· Dairy.

· Cotton.

· Canola oil.

· Papaya.

· Sugar.

· Animal feed.

· Salmon.

· Golden rice.

· Squash.

· Sugar beets.

· Potato.

· Insulin.

· Vaccines.

· Growth hormones.

· Follicle stimulating hormone.

· Erythropoietin.

 

Read the article and write a summary of its contents. Address all of the following in your summary:

· What article did you read? Why did you choose this article?

· What are the main points presented in the article? What message is the author trying to communicate?

· What is gene of interest (being modified) and what is the purpose of this gene? Which organism is the gene inserted into, and what is the intended result of expressing this gene?

· How are microorganisms that normally affect the immune system, such as bacteria or viruses, used beneficially as tools in biotechnology?

· What are the pros and cons of this technology?

· What do other sources of information say about the same concepts presented in the article? Are there discrepancies between the information in the article and that from other sources?

· Where in your life (or in the life of a friend or family member) might the application of this form of biotechnology apply?

Your article should be from a reputable source and should meet all of the checklist items in the Source Evaluation Form. Complete an evaluation of your article, Download the form and answer the questions.

Formatting Requirements

· Written communication: Written communication should be free of errors that detract from the overall message.

· APA formatting: References and citations should be formatted according to APA (6th edition) style and formatting.

· Font and font size: Times New Roman, 12-point.

· Format: Either submit both the bioengineering paper and the completed Source Evaluation Form, or write a paragraph in your paper addressing the questions from the form.

 
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Bio4 Tet

Question 1

 

What is biological evolution?

 

the development of traits that organisms need in order to become more complex

 

gene changes in populations over many generations

 

the change that occurs in individuals as they try to survive in their environment

 

the steps by which the first life was created on earth from random molecules

 

 

 

Question 2

 

Which of the following BEST describes why the process of evolution is easier to study in fruit flies than in birds?

 

Fruit flies have a much shorter generation time than birds.

 

Fruit flies are smaller than birds.

 

Fruit flies have a simpler diet than birds.

 

Fruit flies do not live as long as birds.

 

 

 

Question 3

 

Which of the following groupings is the MOST appropriate according to the classification system developed by Linnaeus?

 

Group 1: whale, giant fruit bat, giant walking stick (an insect); Group 2: penguin, ostrich, human; Group 3: hummingbird, bee, water strider bug

 

Group 1: penguin, ostrich, hummingbird; Group 2: water strider bug, giant walking stick (an insect); Group 3: whale, human, giant fruit bat

 

Group 1: hummingbird, ostrich, bee; Group 2: whale, human, penguin; Group 3: giant walking stick (an insect), water strider bug, giant fruit bat

 

Group 1: penguin, water strider bug, whale; Group 2: ostrich, giant walking stick (an insect), human; Group 3: hummingbird, bee, giant fruit bat

 

 

 

Question 4

 

Polar bears from the Arctic do not produce offspring with the speckled bear of South America due to:

 

temporal isolation.

 

gamete incompatibility.

 

behavioral isolation.

 

spatial isolation.

 

 

Question 5

 

Which of the following statements BEST describes the current knowledge about Earth’s biodiversity?

 

It is relatively common for scientists to discover new or fossil organisms that are completely different from other organisms.

 

Most species that have existed on Earth are alive today.

 

There is uncertainty about the diversity within various species.

 

Scientists generally agree that most species have been identified.

 

 

 

Question 6

 

Put the following in order of most inclusive to specific.

 

Species

 

 

Domain

 

 

Kingdom

 

 

Phyla

 

 

Genus

 

 

uestion 7

 

Match the following terms to the definition or example. Not every definition will be used.

 

Animalia

 

Bacteria

 

Viruses

 

Protista

 

Fungi

 

A.

nonliving microbes

B.

most diverse kingdom

C.

eukaryotic, multicellular organisms such as mushrooms

D.

eukaryotic, multicellular organisms such as mammals

E.

prokaryotes such as E. coli

F.

eukaryotic, multicellular organisms that make their own food

 

 

 

Question 8

 

Match the following terms to the definition or example. Not every definition will be used.

 

Diatoms

 

Cnidaria

 

Tapeworm

 

Earthworm

 

Arthropods

 

Vertebrates

 

Plants

 

Algae

 

Yeast

 

Mold

 

A.

Only protists that produce their own food

B.

Parasitic flatworms

C.

Single cells that produce a glass shell

D.

Provide drugs like aspirin and digitali

E.

Animals without backbones

F.

One of the most commercially important fungal forms

G.

Produces the flavor of cheese

H.

Jellyfish and corals

I.

Shrimp, insects, crabs, and spiders

J.

Segmented worms

K.

Animals with backbones

 

 

Question 9

 

Consider what you have learned about natural selection and mutation concerning health issues like TB and head lice, and apply it to pesticide use and farming. Explain what is meant by a “pesticide treadmill” and why it is a concern to farmers and consumers.

 

Your response should be at least 200 words in length.

 
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GBIO 225 Week 7 Exam

Exam

 

  1. What do pollen, dust mites, certain foods and drugs, insect venom, fungal spores, and some ingredients in cosmetics have in common?

 

(1pts)

 

[removed]

 

they often contain dangerous bacteria

 

[removed]

 

they often act as allergens

 

[removed]

 

they all contain lipids

 

[removed]

 

they are all made of protein

 

2) Which antibodies are secreted when an allergic person is exposed to an allergen?

 

(1pts)

 

[removed]

 

IgD

 

[removed]

 

IgM

 

[removed]

 

IgE

 

[removed]

 

IgA

 

3) A serious and sometimes fatal allergic reaction is

 

(1pts)

 

[removed]

 

septic shock.

 

[removed]

 

anaphylactic shock.

 

[removed]

 

compensated shock.

 

[removed]

 

toxic shock.

 

4) When the body’s defenses turn against its own cells, the disorder is called

 

(1pts)

 

[removed]

 

an autoimmune response.

 

[removed]

 

acquired immune deficiency syndrome.

 

[removed]

 

anaphylactic shock.

 

[removed]

 

passive immunity.

 

5) The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) primarily destroys which cells?

 

(1pts)

 

[removed]

 

T1

 

[removed]

 

B

 

[removed]

 

helper T and macrophages

 

[removed]

 

neutrophils

 

6) The method of contracting an illness after touching a contaminated doorknob, diaper or handkerchief is

 

(1pts)

 

[removed]

 

inhalation contact.

 

[removed]

 

direct contact.

 

[removed]

 

indirect contact.

 

[removed]

 

contact with a vector.

 

7) Becoming infected by a pathogen following the bite of a mosquito is considered

 

(1pts)

 

[removed]

 

indirect contact.

 

[removed]

 

inhalation contact.

 

[removed]

 

direct contact.

 

[removed]

 

contact with a vector.

 

8) The likelihood that a pathogen will make its host seriously ill is

 

(1pts)

 

[removed]

 

pathogenicity.

 

[removed]

 

invasiveness.

 

[removed]

 

virulence.

 

[removed]

 

opulence.

 

9) The enzyme used by HIV that allows it to make DNA from RNA is

 

(1pts)

 

[removed]

 

DNA ligase.

 

[removed]

 

restriction endonuclease.

 

[removed]

 

helicase.

 

[removed]

 

reverse transcriptase.

 

10) Endocarditis

 

(1pts)

 

[removed]

 

refers to ‘inside the heart’.

 

[removed]

 

refers to an irregular heart rhythm.

 

[removed]

 

is only found in elderly patients.

 

[removed]

 

is more problematic for women.

 

11) Infants born with a hole in some part of the hear wall are often referred to as

 

(1pts)

 

[removed]

 

red babies.

 

[removed]

 

blue babies.

 

[removed]

 

purple babies.

 

[removed]

 

green babies.

 

12) Pneumonia may be caused by all of the following EXCEPT

 

(1pts)

 

[removed]

 

bacteria.

 

[removed]

 

anemia.

 

[removed]

 

fungi.

 

[removed]

 

viruses

 

13) The most aggressive form of lung cancer is

 

(1pts)

 

[removed]

 

squamous cell carcinoma.

 

[removed]

 

large-cell carcinoma.

 

[removed]

 

small-cell carcinoma.

 

[removed]

 

adenocarcinoma.

 

14) SARS is a form of

 

(1pts)

 

[removed]

 

asthma.

 

[removed]

 

influenza.

 

[removed]

 

histoplasmosis.

 

[removed]

 

lung cancer.

 

15) A dangerous form of diarrhea complicated by anemia may be caused by

 

(1pts)

 

[removed]

 

Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

 

[removed]

 

Clostridium botulinum.

 

[removed]

 

Staphylococcus aureus.

 

[removed]

 

Escherichia coli.

 

16) Infections, stress or factors that speed up peristalsis may cause

 

(1pts)

 

[removed]

 

diarrhea.

 

[removed]

 

impaction.

 

[removed]

 

constipation.

 

[removed]

 

Crohn’s disease.

 

17) One of the most common of all childhood cancers is

 

(1pts)

 

[removed]

 

bronchogenic carcinoma.

 

[removed]

 

Wilms tumor.

 

[removed]

 

glioblastoma.

 

[removed]

 

osteogenic sarcoma.

 

18) Nephritis may lead to cessation of blood filtering by the glomerulus because the kidney is

 

(1pts)

 

[removed]

 

surrounded by a tough renal capsule.

 

[removed]

 

located behind the intestines.

 

[removed]

 

a paired structure.

 

[removed]

 

directly connected to the inferior vena cava

 

19) Bladder infections that travel up to the kidney are called

 

(1pts)

 

[removed]

 

pyelonephritis.

 

[removed]

 

nephritis.

 

[removed]

 

pyelitis.

 

[removed]

 

glomerulonephritis.

 

20) One of the most common sexually transmitted diseases is

 

(1pts)

 

[removed]

 

HIV

 

[removed]

 

chlamydia.

 

[removed]

 

syphilis.

 

[removed]

 

gonorrhea.

 

21) Why is Chlamydia trachomatis considered a “stealth” STD?

 

(1pts)

 

[removed]

 

infections with it tend to sneak up on people.

 

[removed]

 

a large percentage of people who have it have no symptoms and may pass it on easily.

 

[removed]

 

when people have it, it is difficult to detect with modern techniques.

 

[removed]

 

it may be transmitted in many different ways making it difficult to figure out how a person got it.

 

22) Other than being STDs, what do chlamydia and gonorrhea have in common?

 

(1pts)

 

[removed]

 

their symptoms are identical.

 

[removed]

 

they are caused by the same bacteria.

 

[removed]

 

they both may cause PID.

 

[removed]

 

they are both treated with the same antibiotics.

 

23) The area(s) of the body most susceptible to herpes simplex virus is (are)

 

(1pts)

 

[removed]

 

mucous membranes of the mouth.

 

[removed]

 

mucous membranes of the genitals.

 

[removed]

 

broken skin.

 

[removed]

 

all of these.

 

24) Genital warts are caused by

 

(1pts)

 

[removed]

 

HPV.

 

[removed]

 

Herpes virus.

 

[removed]

 

gonococcus.

 

[removed]

 

chlamydia.

 

25) HPV has been linked to

 

(1pts)

 

[removed]

 

gonorrhea.

 

[removed]

 

cervical cancer.

 

[removed]

 

syphilis.

 

[removed]

 

genital herpes.

 

26) Which of the following diseases, not usually classified as an STD, may be spread by sexual contact?

 

(1pts)

 

[removed]

 

hepatitis A

 

[removed]

 

hepatitis B

 

[removed]

 

lung cancer

 

[removed]

 

breast cancer

 

27) Which is a normal fungal inhabitant of the vagina that can overgrow under certain circumstances causing a “cottage cheesy” discharge, itching, and irritation?

 

(1pts)

 

[removed]

 

Trichomonas vaginalis

 

[removed]

 

lactobacillus

 

[removed]

 

Escherichia coli

 

[removed]

 

Candida albicans

 

28) The treatment for trichomoniasis is

 

(1pts)

 

[removed]

 

anti-fungals.

 

[removed]

 

antibiotics.

 

[removed]

 

gentian violet.

 

[removed]

 

iodine.

 

29) The treatment for a case of hepatitis B is

 

(1pts)

 

[removed]

 

anti-fungal drugs

 

[removed]

 

penicillin

 

[removed]

 

rest

 

[removed]

 

a high protein diet

 

30) In relation to genital herpes, antiviral drugs

 

(1pts)

 

[removed]

 

cure the disease.

 

[removed]

 

reduce the symptoms during recurrences.

 

[removed]

 

all are true except “cure the disease”.

 

[removed]

 

reduce the frequency of recurrences.

 
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BIOS 256 Final Exam

BIOS256 Final Exam

 

BIOS256 Final Exam

Name:_________________________________

 

1 The urinary system does all of the following, except it
  A secretes excess glucose molecules
  B regulates blood volume
  C contributes to stabilizing blood pH
  D eliminates organic waste products
  E regulates plasma concentrations of electrolytes

 

2 Conical structures that are located in the renal medulla are called
  A pyramids
  B renal columns
  C renal pelvises
  D nephrons
  E calyces

 

3 The region known as the macula densa is part of
  A the proximal convoluted tubule
  B the distal convoluted tubule
  C the collecting duct
  D the ascending loop of Henle
  E Bowman’s capsule

 

4 The cells of the macula densa and the juxtaglomerular cells form the
  A renal corpuscle
  B filtration membrane
  C loop of Henle
  D juxtaglomerular apparatus
  E afferent arteriole

 

5 A glomerulus is
  A the expanded end of a nephron
  B a knot of capillaries that lies within the renal corpuscle
  C the portion of the nephron closest to the renal corpuscle
  D the portion of the nephron that attaches to the collecting duct
  E the horseshoe-shaped segment of the nephron

 

6 The following is a list of the blood vessels that carry blood to the kidney.

1. afferent arteriole

2. arcuate artery

3. interlobar artery

4. renal artery

5. glomerulus

6. interlobular artery

7. efferent arteriole

8. peritubular capillary

The proper order in which blood passes through these vessels is

  A 4, 6, 2, 3, 1, 5, 7, 8
  B 4, 3, 2, 6, 1, 5, 7, 8
  C 4, 3, 2, 6, 7, 5, 1, 8
  D 4, 6, 2, 3, 7, 5, 1, 8
  E 4, 3, 6, 2, 1, 5, 7, 8

 

7 The process of filtration is driven by
  A active transport
  B blood osmotic pressure
  C blood hydrostatic pressure
  D renal pumping

 

8 The mechanisms for maintaining the solute concentration gradient in the renal medulla require
  A active transport of sodium and chloride ions from the ascending limb of the loop of Henle
  B active transport of sodium and chloride ions from the ascending limb of the vasa recta
  C the ascending limb of the loop of Henle to be permeable to water
  D the vasa recta to be impermeable to water
  E both A and B

 

9 Which of the following is greater?
  A the concentration of solute in the filtrate at the beginning of the loop of Henle
  B the concentration of solute in the filtrate at the bottom of the descending limb of the loop of Henle

 

10 The antidiuretic hormone
  A increases the permeability of the collecting ducts to water
  B is secreted in response to low concentrations of potassium ions in the extracellular fluid.
  C causes the kidneys to produce a larger volume of relatively solute-free urine
  D helps regulate the concentration of potasium ion in the interstitial space
  E is sensitive to changes in the blood concentrations of both sodium and potassium

 

11 In the loop of Henle
  A water is secreted into the descending limb
  B sodium and chloride ions are actively transported out of the ascending limb
  C the ascending limb is very permeable to water
  D the filtrate in the descending limb becomes more and more hypotonic
  E filtrate is produced

 

12 Which hormone stimulates the thirst mechanism most?
  A ADH
  B aldosterone
  C ANP
  D BNP
  E natriuretic peptide

 

13 All of the following are components of ECF, except
  A cerebral spinal fluid
  B peritoneal fluid
  C lymph
  D aqueous humor
  E plasma

 

14 Which hormone plays a role in determining the rate of sodium absorption and potassium loss?
  A ADH
  B aldosterone
  C ANP
  D BNP
  E natriuretic peptide

 

 

15 You are caring for a patient who has been vomiting and having diarrhea for the past five days. You suspect that his electrolyte levels are
  A normal
  B elevated
  C the same as upon admission
  D decreased
  E noncritical

 

16 Which hormone affects the osmotic concentration of urine without affecting any ion levels?
  A ADH
  B aldosterone
  C ANP
  D BNP
  E natriuretic peptide

 

17 The most common problems with electrolyte balance are caused by an imbalance between gains and losses of
  A calcium ions
  B chlorine ions
  C potassium ions
  D sodium ions
  E magnesium ions

 

18 The higher the plasma concentration of aldosterone, the more efficiently the kidney will
  A conserve sodium ions
  B retain potassium ions
  C stimulate urinary water loss
  D secrete greater amounts of ADH
  E all of the above

 

19 Angiotensin II produces a coordinated elevation in the ECF volume by
  A stimulating thirst
  B causing the release of ADH
  C triggering the production and secretion of aldosterone
  D A and B
  E A, B, and C

 

20 Renal failure can result in
  A decreased urea
  B hyponatremia
  C hyperkalemia
  D hypokalemia
  E none of the above

 

21 Intracellular fluid (ICF) is found in
  A blood vessels
  B lymph
  C the cells of the body
  D the interstitial space
  E the cerebrospinal fluid

 

22 The principal cation in intracellular fluid is
  A sodium
  B potassium
  C calcium
  D magnesium
  E chloride
23 When water is lost, but electrolytes are retained
  A the osmolarity of the ECF falls
  B osmosis moves water from the ICF to the ECF
  C both the ECF and the ICF become more dilute
  D there is an increase in the volume of the ICF
  E both A and D

 

24 Consuming a meal high in salt will
  A drastically increase the osmolarity of the blood
  B result in a temporary increase in blood volume
  C decrease thirst
  D cause hypotension
  E activate the renin-angiotensin mechanism

 

25 Aldosterone
  A is secreted in response to elevated levels of sodium in the blood
  B promotes sodium retention in the kidneys
  C helps decrease blood volume
  D increases the concentration of sodium in urine
  E functions in pH regulation

 

26 When the level of sodium ion in extracellular fluid decreases,
  A osmoreceptors are stimulated
  B a person experiences an increased thirst
  C more ADH is released
  D there is an increase in the level of aldosterone
  E there is an increase in the level of atrial natriuretic factor

 

27 Excess potassium ion is eliminated from the body by
  A sweating
  B the kidneys
  C the liver
  D the digestive system
  E the spleen

 

28 The amount of potassium secreted by the kidneys is regulated by
  A ADH
  B aldosterone
  C parathormone
  D atrial natriuretic factor
  E cortisol

 

29 Calcium reabsorption by the kidneys is promoted by the hormone
  A calcitonin
  B calcitriol
  C aldosterone
  D cortisol
  E ADH

 

30 Each of the following statements concerning chloride ions is true, except that
  A chloride ions are the most abundant anions in the ECF
  B chloride ion concentrations in the ICF are usually low
  C chloride ions are absorbed along the digestive tract in the company of sodium ions
  D large amounts of chloride ions are lost each day in the urine
  E chloride ions are lost in perspiration

 

31 The primary role of the carbonic acid–bicarbonate buffer system is to
  A buffer stomach acid
  B buffer carbonic acid formed by carbon dioxide
  C prevent pH changes caused by organic and fixed acids
  D buffer the urine
  E increase the amount of carbonic acid during ventilation

 

32 Acidosis can cause all of the following, except
  A coma and death
  B peripheral vasoconstriction
  C cardiac arrhythmias
  D heart failure
  E It can cause all of the above

 

33 Hypoventilation would cause
  A respiratory acidosis
  B respiratory alkalosis
  C metabolic acidosis
  D metabolic alkalosis

 

34 In response to respiratory alkalosis, the
  A respiratory rate increases
  B tidal volume increases
  C kidneys conserve bicarbonate
  D kidneys secrete more hydrogen ions
  E body retains more carbon dioxide

 

35 Prolonged vomiting can result in
  A respiratory acidosis
  B respiratory alkalosis
  C metabolic acidosis
  D metabolic alkalosis

 

36 A person with emphysema will exhibit signs of
  A respiratory acidosis
  B respiratory alkalosis
  C metabolic acidosis
  D metabolic alkalosis

 

37 A person with chronic diabetes will exhibit signs of
  A respiratory acidosis
  B respiratory alkalosis
  C metabolic acidosis
  D metabolic alkalosis

 

38 A person who chronically consumes large amounts of antacids to settle an upset stomach may risk
  A respiratory acidosis
  B respiratory alkalosis
  C metabolic acidosis
  D metabolic alkalosis

 

 

39 To survive, humans must maintain a normal volume and composition of
  A ECF
  B body fluids
  C ICF
  D plasma
  E all of the above

 

40 A _____ acid is an acid that can leave solution and enter the atmosphere
  A fixed
  B organic
  C volatile
  D level
  E short

 

41 The reproductive system
  A produces gametes
  B stores and transports gametes
  C nourishes gametes
  D A and B only
  E all of the above

 

42 Projections of the tunica albuginea, known as septae, divide the testis into
  A seminiferous tubules
  B straight tubules
  C lobules
  D interstitial areas
  E the tunica albuginea and the testis proper

 

43 Straight tubules originate at the seminiferous tubules and form a maze of passageways called the
  A epididymis
  B ductusdeferens
  C rete testis
  D efferent ducts
  E ejaculatory ducts

 

44 The spermatic cord is
  A a dense layer of connective tissue that surrounds the testis
  B a bundle of tissue that contains the ductus deferens and the blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatics that serve the testis.
  C a narrow opening that links the scrotal chamber with the peritoneal cavity
  D the external marking of the boundary between the two chambers of the scrotum.
  E a layer of smooth muscle in the skin of the scrotal sac.

 

45 Interstitial cells produce
  A sperm
  B inhibin
  C nutrients
  D androgens
  E androgen-binding protein.

 

46 The sustentacular cells of the seminiferous tubules do all of the following, except that they
  A maintain the blood–testis barrier
  B support spermiogenesis
  C secrete inhibin
  D secrete testosterone
  E secrete androgen-binding protein
47 Sperm production occurs in the
  A ductusdeferens
  B seminiferoustubules
  C epididymis
  D seminal vesicles
  E rete testis

 

48 Sperm develop from stem cellscalled
  A spermatogonia
  B primary spermatocytes
  C secondary spermatocytes
  D spermatids
  E spermatozoa

 

49 As developing sperm cells begin the process of meiosis, they become
  A spermatogonia
  B spermatocytes
  C spermatids
  D spermatozoons
  E Sertoli cells

 

50 The cells that are formed at the end of meiosis are called
  A spermatogonia
  B primary spermatocytes
  C secondary spermatocytes
  D spermatids
  E spermatozoa

 

51 Sperm are moved along the ductus deferens by
  A hydrostatic force
  B ciliary action
  C peristaltic contractions
  D suction
  E segmental movements

 

52 The following is a list of structures of the male reproductive tract.

1. ductus deferens

2. urethra

3. ejaculatory duct

4. seminal vescicle

The order in which sperm pass through these structures from the testes to the penis is

  A 1, 3, 4, 2
  B 4, 3, 1, 2.
  C 4, 1, 2, 3
  D 4, 1, 3, 2.
  E 1, 4, 3, 2

 

53 The structure that carries sperm from the seminal vesicle to the urethra is the
  A ductusdeferens
  B epididymis
  C seminal vesicle
  D ejaculatory duct
  E corpus cavernosum

 

 

54 The tubular structure that produces a secretion that contains fructose, prostaglandins, and fibrinogen is the
  A prostate gland
  B bulbourethral gland
  C seminal vesicle
  D corpus cavernosum
  E preputial gland

 

55 The structure that surrounds the urethra and produces an alkaline secretion is the
  A seminal vesicle
  B bulbourethral gland
  C prostate gland
  D preputial gland
  E Bartholin’s gland

 

56 Seminal fluid contains all of the following, except
  A spermatozoons
  B seminal fluid
  C prostaglandins
  D fructose
  E enzymes

 

57 The male organ of copulation is the
  A urethra
  B ejaculatory duct
  C penis
  D corpus cavernosum
  E corpus spongiosum

 

58 The portion of the penis that surrounds the external urethral meatus is the
  A prepuce
  B glans
  C corpus spongiosum
  D corpus cavernosum
  E corona glandis

 

59 The erectile tissue that surrounds the urethra is the
  A membranous urethra
  B penile urethra
  C glans penis
  D corpus spongiosum
  E corpus cavernosum

 

60 The role of the pituitary hormone follicle-stimulating hormone in males is to
  A stimulate the interstitial cells to produce testosterone
  B stimulate the sustentacular cells to produce inhibin
  C initiate sperm production in the testes
  D develop and maintain secondary sex characteristics
  E influence sexual behaviors and sex drive

 

61 The pituitary hormone that stimulates the interstitial cells to secrete testosterone is
  A FSH
  B LH
  C ACTH
  D ADH
  E GH

 

62 The broad ligament is
  A an extensive mesentery that encloses the ovaries, uterine tubes, and uterus
  B a thickened fold of mesentery that supports and stabilizes the position of the ovary
  C a pocket formed between the posterior wall of the uterus and the anterior surface of the rectum
  D a structure that attaches the ovary to the wall of the uterus
  E a structure that extends from the lateral surface of the ovary to the pelvic wall

 

63 The organ that provides mechanical protection and nutritional support for the developing embryo is the
  A vagina
  B uterine tube
  C ovary
  D uterus
  E cervix

 

64 The round ligaments extend from the
  A base of the uterus and vagina to the lateral walls of the pelvis
  B lateral surface of the uterus to the anterior surface of the sacrum
  C lateral margins of the uterus, through the inguinal canal to the base of the genitals
  D body of the uterus to the fundus
  E cervix of the uterus to the vagina.

 

65 The muscular layer of the uterus is the
  A endometrium
  B perimetrium
  C myometrium
  D uterometrium
  E sarcometrium

 

66 Each of the following statements concerning oogenesis is true, except that
  A at the time of birth the ovaries contain only primary oocytes
  B ova develop from stem cells called oogonia
  C an ovum will only complete meiosis if it is fertilized
  D oogenesis occurs continuously from puberty until menopause
  E the first meiotic division is completed just prior to ovulation

 

67 The surge in luteinizing hormone that occurs during the middle of the ovarian cycle triggers
  A follicle maturation
  B menstruation
  C ovulation
  D menopause
  E atresia

 

68 A rise in the blood levels of follicle-stimulating hormone at the beginning of the ovarian cycle is responsible for
  A follicle maturation
  B menstruation
  C ovulation
  D menopause
  E atresia

 

69 During the proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle,
  A ovulation occurs
  B a new functional layer is formed in the uterus
  C secretory glands and blood vessels develop in the endometrium
  D the old functional layer is sloughed off
  E the corpus luteum is formed

 

70 During the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle
  A ovulation occurs
  B a new uterine lining is formed
  C glands enlarge and accelerate their rates of secretion
  D the old functional layer is sloughed off
  E the corpus luteum is formed

 

71 During the menses
  A ovulation occurs
  B a new uterine lining is formed
  C secretory glands and blood vessels develop in the endometrium
  D the old functional layer is sloughed off
  E the corpus luteum is formed

 

72 All of the following are true of the vagina, except that it
  A serves as a passageway for the elimination of menstrual fluids
  B receives the penis during coitus
  C holds spermatozoa prior to their passage to the uterus
  D forms the lower portion of the birth canal
  E loses a portion of its lining during menstrual flow

 

73 In the mammary gland, milk production occurs in the
  A lobes
  B lobules
  C lactiferous duct
  D lactiferous sinus
  E lactiferous adipose tissue

 

74 The clitoris is
  A a thin epithelial fold that partially or completely blocks the entrance to the vagina
  B a fleshy fold that encircles the vestibule
  C a mound of fat that is superior to the pubis
  D a mass of erectile tissue located at the anterior margin of the labia minora
  E a shallow recess that surrounds the cervical portion of the vagina

 

75 The principal hormone(s) secreted by the corpus luteum is/are
  A LH
  B FSH
  C progesterone
  D estrogen
  E estradiol

 

76 Menstruation is triggered by a drop in the levels of
  A FSH
  B LH
  C relaxin
  D estrogen and progesterone
  E human chorionic gonadotropin

 

77 The developing follicle cells secrete
  A estrogens
  B progesterone
  C FSH
  D LH
  E GnRH

 

78 The hormone estradiol does all of the following, except that it
  A stimulates bone and muscle growth
  B maintains female secondary sex characteristics
  C stimulates the symptoms of menopause
  D maintains functional accessory reproductive glands and organs
  E initiates repair and growth of the endometrium

 

79 All of the following occur at puberty in both sexes, except that
  A levels of FSH increase while levels of LH decrease
  B gametogenesis begins
  C secondary sex characteristics begin to appear.
  D a sex drive develops
  E both A and B

 

80 The _____ is the inferior portion of the uterus that extends from the isthmus to the vagina
  A body
  B cervix
  C fundus
  D myometrium
  E internal os

 

82 Which muscle draws the scrotal sac close to the body to control scrotal temperature?
  A dartos
  B inguinal
  C cremaster
  D ductus
  E parietal

 

83 During which stage of spermatogenesis do the cells begin meiosis?
  A spermatogonia
  B primary
  C first
  D secondary
  E third

 

84 The primary oocyte and its follicle cell form in the
  A cortex
  B ovarian follicles
  C primordial follicle
  D ovarian cycle
  E follicle cells

 

85 DNA replicates during
  A meiosis I.
  B prophase II
  C meiosis II
  D anaphase II
  E both A and C

 

86 Sustentacular cells contain or function in all of the following, except
  A secretions of MIF
  B progesterone-binding protein
  C spermiogenesis
  D supporting meiosis
  E serving as a blood–testis barrier

 

87 Which is the function of the ovaries?
  A secretion of hormones
  B production of oocytes
  C formation of immature gametes
  D secretion of inhibin
  E all of the above

 

88 Where does oocyte growth and meiosis I occur?
  A in the cortex
  B within ovarian follicles
  C within the primordial follicle
  D at the ovarian cycle
  E within follicle cells

 

89 The completion of meiosis in males produces four spermatids, each containing
  A 23 chromosomes
  B 23 pairs of chromosomes
  C the diploid number of chromosomes
  D 46 pairs of chromosomes
  E 46 chromosomes

 

90 Testosterone and other androgens are secreted by the
  A hypothalamus
  B anterior lobe of the pituitary gland
  C sustentacular cells
  D interstitial cells
  E hypophysis

 

91 The solid ball of cells that is formed after several rounds of cell division following fertilization is called a
  A chorion
  B blastula
  C gastrula
  D morula
  E blastocyst

 

92 The hormone that increases the flexibility of the symphysis pubis and causes dilation of the cervix during pregnancy is
  A luteinizing hormone (LH).
  B progesterone
  C human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).
  D human placental lactogen (hPL).
  E relaxin

 

93 In _____, implantation occurs somewhere other than in the uterus
  A ectopicpregnancy
  B abortion
  C hydramnios
  D placenta previa
  E none of the above

 

94 Human chorionic somatomammotropin will not be converted to active status without
  A estrogen
  B progesterone
  C placental prolactin
  D only A and B
  E A, B, and C
 
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