Name____________________________

Date_____________________________

 

Exam 3 Biology 1307

1. True or False. All protists are eukaryotic.

A. true

B. false

 

2. Chloroplasts arose via _____.

A. endosymbiosis of dinoflagellates

B. endosymbiosis of cyanobacteria

C. endosymbiosis of fungi

D. endosymbiosis of euglenids

 

3. According to the endosymbiosis theory, how many membranes should a mitochondrion have?

A. One

B. Three

C. Two

D. Zero

 

4. You are given an unknown organism to identify. It is unicellular and heterotrophic. It is motile, using many short extensions of the cytoplasm. It has well-developed organelles and two nuclei, one large and one small. This organism is most likely to be a ________.

A. foraminiferan

B. diatom

C. ciliate

D. dinoflagellate

E. slime mold

 

5. Which of the following statements is consistent with the assertion that protists are paraphyletic?

A. There is no common set of synapomorphies that define a protist

B. Protists all share a common set of synapomorphies.

C. Protists are all more primitive than land plants and animals.

D. Protists do not share a single common ancestor.

 

6. Encouraging the growth (via nutrient fertilization) of photosynthetic protists in marine environments may help reduce global warming because _____.

A. the increased oxygen consumption by large populations of photosynthetic protists will increase photosynthesis in land plants

B. photosynthetic protists are primary consumers in many marine food chains

C. photosynthetic protists fix atmospheric carbon dioxide, decreasing atmospheric carbon dioxide levels

7. Encouraging the growth (via nutrient fertilization) of photosynthetic protists in marine environments may help reduce global warming because ________.

A) photosynthetic protists are primary consumers in many marine food chains

B) photosynthetic protists fix atmospheric carbon dioxide, decreasing atmospheric carbon

dioxide levels

C) the increased oxygen consumption by large populations of photosynthetic protists will increase photosynthesis in land plants

D) photosynthetic protists would release a lot of oxygen, and fertilizing them would increase levels of oxygen in the atmosphere

 

8. Which of these taxa contains species that produce potent toxins that can cause extensive fish kills, contaminate shellfish, and poison humans?

A. red algae

B. dinoflagellates

C. diplomonads

D. euglenids

9. Which of the following might be a result of adding a secondary consumer to the aquatic ecosystem in the accompanying illustration?

A. a decrease in the number of primary consumers

B. a decrease in the population of decomposers

C. an increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide

D. an increase in the population of scavengers

E. a decrease in the carbon sink

 

10. The Irish potato famine was caused by an organism that belongs to which species?

A. Phytophtora infestans

B. Trichomonas vaginalis

C. Giardia spp.

D. Trypanozoma cruzi

11. Which of the following eukaryotic lineages contains species that all lack functioning mitochondria?

A. Excavata

B. Rhizaria

C. Amoebozoa

D. Stramenopila

 

12. Pseudopods that can perform phagocytosis and have the ability to change their shape are generally characteristic of which group?

A. radiolarians

B. amoebas

C. slime molds

D. oomycetes

 

13. Which of the following is a synapomorphy that defines all green algae and land plants?

A. Seeds B. Vascular tissue C. Cell walls D, Photosynthetic chloroplasts

14. One of the fish in your aquarium dies. Adding which protist to the water would allow you to avoid flushing the dead fish by speeding its decay?

A. an apicomplexan

B. a dinoflagellata

C. a water mold

D. a ciliate

E. a euglenid

 

15. According to the endosymbiotic theory, why was it adaptive for the larger (host) cell to keep the engulfed cell alive, rather than digesting it as food?

A. The engulfed cell provided the host cell with adenosine triphosphate (ATP).

B. The engulfed cell provided the host cell with carbon dioxide.

C. The engulfed cell allowed the host cell to metabolize glucose.

D. The host cell was able to survive anaerobic conditions with the engulfed cell alive.

E. The host cell would have been poisoned if it had digested the engulfed cell.

 

16. Alternation of generations occurs in some protists. Which of the following represents the correct sequence of events for this mode of reproduction?

A. gametophyte → gamete → fusion → sporophyte → spore → gametophyte

B. sporophyte → spore fusion → gametophyte → gamete → sporophyte

C. gametophyte → fusion → sporophyte → spore → gamete → gametophyte

D. gamete → fusion → gametophyte →spore → sporophyte → gamete

 

17. In examining a protist, you notice that it lacks a cell wall, and has movement with cytoplasmic streaming. These data allow you to infer that the species belongs to which of the following protist groups?

A. Excavata

B. Stramenopila

C. Rhizaria

D. Alveolata

E. Amoebozoa

 

18. Chagas disease is spread by the “kissing bug”. This disease affect 16-18 million people around the world and causes about 50,000 deaths annually and is caused by which protist?

A. Giardia

B. Trichomonas vaginalis

C. Trypanosoma cruzi

D. Plasmodioum

 

19. Dysentery is caused by _______________ and causes severe diarrhea. It is mostly prevalent in countries with a warm climate and poor sanitary conditions. In some places it is known as “Montezuma’s revenge”. Which of the following protists causes dysentery

A. Entamoeba histolytica

B. Phytophthora infestans

C. Plasmodioum

D. Dinoflagellates

 

20. What impact will the loss of land plants have on the soil?

A. Increase soil stability

B. Increase soil erosion

C. Increase nutrient levels

D. Decrease surface temperature

 

21. The major function of the medicinal compounds in plants is to _____.

A. as defense against herbivores

B. attract pollinators for seed dispersal

C. attract insects and birds to spread seeds and fruits

D. defend the plant against microbes

 

22. The most direct ancestors of land plants were probably _____.

A. liverworts and mosses B. green algae C. kelp (brown alga) D. cyanobacteria

 

23. What evidence indicates the movement of plants from water to land?

A. sporopollenin to inhibit evaporation from leaves

B. loss of structures that produce spores

C. remnants of chloroplasts from photosynthesizing cells

D. waxy cuticle to decrease evaporation from leaves

 

24. Which of these time intervals, based on plant fossils, came last (most recently)?

A. carboniferous swamps with giant horsetails and ferns

B. rise and diversification of angiosperms

C. colonization of land by early liverworts and mosses

D. extensive growth of gymnosperm forests

 

25. Angiosperms are the most successful terrestrial plants. Which of the following features is unique to them and helps account for their success?

A. embryos enclosed within seed coats

B. sperm cells without flagella

C. fruits enclosing seeds which contain the plant embryo

D. wind pollination

 

26. Protists and bacteria are grouped into different domains because _____.

A. bacteria are not made of cells

B. protists have a membrane-bounded nucleus, which bacterial cells lack

C. protists eat bacteria

D. protists are photosynthetic

 

27. The term gymnosperm refers to plants _____.

A. with “naked seeds” that do not produce flowers

B. that are non-vascular

C. that flower

D. with seeds protected within a fruit

 

28. What trait gives seeds an advantage over spores?

A. Protected from the environment

B. Small in size

C. Contain nutrients

D. Long-lived

 

29. Which of the following was a challenge to the survival of the first land plants?

A. desiccation

B. too much sunlight

C. a shortage of carbon dioxide

D. animal predation

 

30. _____ are angiosperms.

A. Roses

B. Fiddlehead ferns

C. Sphagnum mosses

D. Pine trees

 

31. Primary producers such as plants and green algae ____________.

A. Convert solar energy (light) to chemical energy (sugars)

B. Decompose decaying material in soil to produce energy

C. Consume other organisms to produce chemical energy (sugars) and solar energy (light)

D. Produce CO2 by performing photosynthesis

 

32. Plants provide many ecosystem services including production of oxygen and holding the soil. What is an ecosystem?

A. All the organisms or biotic factors in a particular area

B. All the living and nonliving components in a particular area

C. The nonliving or abiotic components in a particular area

D. All plants and animals in a given region

 

33. Stoma (plural: stomata) are____________.

A. Small openings called pores surrounded by specialized guard cells

B. Watertight sealants produced by plants to avoid desiccation

C. Specialized organelles in plant cells to perform photosynthesis

D. Modified leaves in a plant to avoid predation by herbivores

 

34. Flowers, the reproductive organ of a flowering plant, has two key reproductive structures called:

A. Seed and pistil

B. Stamen and fruit

C. Stamen and pistil

D. Seed and anther

 

35. The three main ways in which pollen is transported from plant to plant or flower to flower are:

A. Animals, wind, water

B. Wind, fungi, water

C. Animals, bees, wind

D. Fungi, water, insects

 

36. _____________ is a process by which pollen is transferred in plants.

A. Pollen grains

B. Style

C. Pollination

D. Translocation

 

37. True or False. The female part of the flower is the stamen.

A. True B. False

 

38. True or False. The main function of the endosperm is to provide nutrients for the embryo plant.

A. True B. False

 

39. True or False. Plants and not algae are the main primary producers in Earth’s oceans.

A. True B. False

 

40. True or False. Bryophytes such as mosses lack vascular tissue (xylem and phloem).

A. True B. False

41. Root hairs are most important to a plant because they ________.

A. anchor a plant in the soil

B. store starches

C. increase the surface area for absorption

D. provide a habitat for nitrogen-fixing bacteria

E. contain xylem tissue

 

42. As fuels, wood and coal ________.

A) are the main fuel sources in industrialized countries today.

B) are both formed from living or fossil plants.

C) are both formed under pressure deep in the Earth.

D) are sustainable as they are even now being made at high rates.

 

43. Molecular phylogenies show all land plants are a monophyletic group. This suggests ________.

A) there were many different transitions from aquatic to terrestrial habitats

B) wind-pollinated plants arose first

C) land plants have undergone a diversification since they first colonized terrestrial habitats

D) there was a single transition from aquatic to terrestrial habitats

 

44. Which of these time intervals, based on plant fossils, came last (most recently)?

A) extensive growth of gymnosperm forests

B) Silurian-Devonian explosion with fossils of plant lineages containing most of the major morphological innovations

C) colonization of land by early liverworts and mosses

D) rise and diversification of angiosperms

E) carboniferous swamps with giant horsetails and lycophytes

 

45. Why are seedless vascular plants considered paraphyletic rather than monophyletic?

A) Some of the groups within the seedless vascular plants are more closely related to each other than to other groups (such as Lycophyta).

B) They share a more recent common ancestor with seeded plants than they do with the non-vascular plants.

C) All of the groups contained within the seedless vascular plants do not have the same ancestor.

D) The group includes their common ancestor but also the seeded descendants of that same ancestor.

 

46. Which set contains the most closely related terms?

A) megasporangium, megaspore, pollen, ovule

B) microsporangium, microspore, egg, ovary

C) megasporangium, megaspore, egg, ovule

D) microsporangium, microspore, carpel, ovary

 

47. In the process of alternation of generations, the ________.

A) sporophyte is haploid and produces gametes

B) sporophyte is diploid and produces spores

C) gametophyte is haploid and produces spores

D) gametophyte is diploid and produces gametes

E) spores unite to form a zygote

 

48. Where are you LEAST likely to see green algae?

A) as pink snow in the mountains in summer

B) growing symbiotically with fungi in lichens or with some invertebrate animals

C) growing independently on dry rock in meadows

D) growing independently on wet rock in ponds and lakes

E) floating in seas and oceans

 

49. When a mosquito infected with Plasmodium first bites a human, the Plasmodium ________.

A) gametes fuse, forming an oocyst

B) cells infect the human liver cells

C) cells cause lysing of the human red blood cells

D) oocyst undergoes meiosis

 

50. Carbon dioxide enters the inner spaces of the leaf through the ________.

A) cuticle

B) epidermal trichomes

C) stoma

D) phloem

E) walls of guard cells

 

51. Which part of a plant absorbs most of the water and minerals taken up from the soil?

A) root cap

B) root hairs

C) the thick parts of the roots near the base of the stem

D) storage roots

E) sections of the root that have secondary xylem

 

52. When an animal cell is placed in a hypotonic solution and water enters the cell via osmosis, the volume of the cell increases until it bursts. This does NOT happen to plant cells, because ________.

A) they have large central vacuoles, which provide abundant space for storage of incoming water

B) the composition of their plasma membranes differs from that of animal-cell plasma membranes in a way that provides much greater strength

C) they have cell walls, which prevent the entry of water by osmosis

D) they have cell walls, which provide pressure to counteract the pressure of the incoming water

E) certain gated channel proteins embedded in their plasma membranes open as osmotic pressure decreases, allowing excess water to leave the cell

 

53. Compared to a cell with few aquaporins in its membrane, a cell containing many aquaporins will ________.

A) have a faster rate of osmosis

B) have a lower water potential

C) have a higher water potential

D) have a faster rate of active transport

E) be flaccid

 

54. Which cells in a root form a protective barrier to the vascular system where all materials must move through the symplast?

A) pericycle

B) cortex

C) epidermis

D) endodermis

E) exodermis

 

55. You are conducting an experiment on plant growth. You take a plant fresh from the soil that weighs 5 kilograms (kg). Then you dry the plant overnight and determine the dry weight to be 1 kg. Of this dry weight, how much would you expect to be made up of oxygen, carbon, and hydrogen?

A) 1 gram

B) 4 grams

C) 40 grams

D) 960 grams

E) 1 kg

 

56. Which of the following statements about essential nutrients are TRUE? Essential nutrients ________.

I. are necessary for plant growth and reproduction

II. are required for a specific structure or metabolic function

III. cannot be synthesized by a plant

IV. are produced by symbiotic bacteria

A) I and IV

B) II, III, and IV

C) I, II, and III

D) I, II, III, and IV

 

57. Which criteria allow biologists to divide chemicals into macronutrients and micronutrients?

A) molecular weight of the element or compound

B) the quantities of each required by plants

C) how they are used in metabolism

D) whether or not they are essential for plant growth

 

58. A mineral deficiency is likely to affect older leaves more than younger leaves if the ________.

A) mineral is a micronutrient

B) mineral is very mobile within the plant

C) mineral is required for chlorophyll synthesis

D) mineral is a macronutrient

E) older leaves are in direct sunlight

 

59. Which of the following elements correctly pairs an essential element in plants with its function?

A) nitrogen–component of nucleic acids, proteins, hormones, coenzymes

B) magnesium–component of nucleic acids, phospholipids, ATP

C) phosphorus–cofactor functioning in protein synthesis

D) sulfur–component of DNA; activates some enzymes

 

60. Why is nitrogen fixation an essential process?

A) Fixed nitrogen is often the limiting factor in plant growth.

B) Nitrogen fixation is very expensive in terms of metabolic energy.

C) Nitrogen-fixing capacity can be genetically engineered.

D) None of the above

 

61. Nitrogen fixation is a process that ________.

A) recycles nitrogen compounds from dead and decaying materials

B) converts ammonia to ammonium

C) releases nitrate from the rock substrate

D) converts nitrogen gas into ammonia

E) recycles nitrogen compounds from dead and decaying materials and converts ammonia to ammonium

 

62. Which of the following, if used as a fertilizer, would be most immediately available for plant uptake?

A) NH3

B) N2

C) CN2H2

D) NO3-

 

63. In what way do nitrogen compounds differ from other minerals needed by plants? Only nitrogen ________.

A) can be lost from the soil

B) can be provided by symbiotic bacteria

C) is needed for protein synthesis

D) is held by cation exchange capacity in the soil

E) can be absorbed by root hairs

 

64. What is the correct sequence of steps during infection of plants by nitrogen-fixing bacteria?

A) Rhizobia release Nod factors; roots release flavonoids; rhizobia proliferate inside of root hair; infection thread grows into the root cortex; nodule forms.

B) Rhizobia release flavonoids; roots release Nod factors; rhizobia proliferate inside of root hair; infection thread grows into the root cortex; nodule forms.

C) Roots release flavonoids; rhizobia release Nod factors; rhizobia proliferate inside of root hair; nodule forms; infection thread grows into the root cortex.

D) Roots release flavonoids; rhizobia release Nod factors; rhizobia proliferate inside of root hair; infection thread grows into the root cortex; nodule forms.

E) Nodule forms; infection thread grows into the root cortex; rhizobia proliferate inside of root hair; rhizobia release flavonoids and Nod factors.

 

65. Carnivorous plants have evolved mechanisms that trap and digest small animals. The products of this digestion are used to supplement the plant’s supply of ________.

A) water

B) carbohydrates

C) lipids and steroids

D) nitrogen, nutrient, and other minerals

 

66. Which of the following statements about nitrogen fixation in root nodules is correct?

A) The plant contributes the nitrogenase enzyme.

B) The process is relatively inexpensive in terms of ATP costs.

C) Leghemoglobin helps maintain a low oxygen concentration within the nodule.

D) The process tends to deplete nitrogen compounds in the soil.

E) The bacteria of the nodule are autotrophic.

 

67. Most of the dry mass of a plant is derived from ________.

A) NO3- and CO2

B) K+ and CO2

C) PO4 and K+

D) H2O and K+

E) H2O and CO2

 

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Sources:

1. http://discovermagazine.com/1992/jun/13-whatslovegottodo56

2. https://phys.org/news/2015-04-chimps-senegal-fashion-spears.html

3. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=uz1a7MzHtOQ&feature=youtu.be

4. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ojzcNxyHZB8&feature=youtu.be

 

PROMPT 1

Bonobos and chimpanzees are very similar to each other. What are some of the key characteristics they share? They are also very different from each other, in some pretty interesting ways. What are the key differences between bonobos and chimpanzees? What evolutionary explanation has been proposed for these differences?

PROMPT 2

Bonobos and chimpanzees are our two closest living relatives and, as such, have a lot to tell us about who we are. How do you think understanding their behavior informs our understanding of our own behavior? BE SPECIFIC and make specific reference to the assigned materials. Please be sure your comments are rooted in the course materials and the conclusions we can draw from them.

PROMPT 3

What kind of tools do chimpanzees use? Female chimpanzees use tools more often than males and are more innovative in tool use. Why do you think this might be?

PROMPT 4

What did you find most interesting about the experiments and studies shown in Ape Genius? Be specific, explaining the experiment or study, what it was testing, what the results were, what conclusions can be drawn (or not) from it, and what species was tested.

PROMPT 5

It is widely accepted in the biological sciences, including biological anthropology, that many non-human species possess culture or elements of cultural behavior. How do the course materials define culture? What are some of the cultural behaviors discussed in the course materials? Can you find other examples of cultural behavior in non-human animals? Include links to any external websites you use.

PROMPT 6

The evolution of bipedalism was the first step in setting hominins down an entirely new evolutionary path from the other apes living at the time. How did the environment influence the emergence of bipedalism in our lineage? What environmental changes were occurring that selected for travel on two legs? What were some of the major anatomical changes that emerged?

PROMPT 7

We will spend a bit of time talking about the australopithecines but they were not the first hominins. Who were the earliest, pre-australopithecine hominins (there are 4)? What are some of their characteristics?

PROMPT 8

The australopithecines were a diverse group of hominins well-adapted to the savanna mosaic in East and South Africa. Who were the various australopithecine species? What were their characteristics? How do we see a mixture of ape-like and human-like characteristics in them?

PROMPT 9

What are the characteristics of Homo habilis (transitional early humans)? What are the significant differences we see between them and the australopithecines? What major cultural developments are associated with them?

 

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Write a carefully constructed essay in which you consider the facts and responsibilities of those involved and bystanders as well as presented in articles by Norman Cousins and Norman Mailer. You may also incorporate evidence from any other additional source material you consulted. Be sure to cite any sources in your work.

 

 

Reading a Cause-and-Effect Analysis with a Critical Eye

Once you have written a draft (or two or three) of your essay, it’s always wise to ask someone else

to look over what you’ve written. Ask readers where they find your analysis clear and convincing,

what specific evidence they find most effective, and where they think you need more (or less)

explanation. Here are some questions to keep in mind when checking over a cause-and-effect

analysis.

PURPOSE AND AUDIENCE.

Why is the reader being asked to consider these

particular causes or effects? Is the intended audience likely to find the analysis plausible as well as

useful? What additional information might readers need?

ORGANIZATION.

Does the essay emphasize causes or effects? Should it give more (or

less) attention to either? Are causes and effects presented in a logical sequence?

CHRONOLOGICAL ORDER.

Does the essay analyze causes and effects in

chronological order where appropriate? Does it consistently link cause to effect, and effect to

cause?

REVERSE CHRONOLOGICAL ORDER.

Where effects are known but causes

are uncertain, is it clear what chain of events most likely led to the effect(s) in question? Are those

events presented in reverse chronological order? If not, how can the order of events be clarified?

THE POINT.

What is the analysis intended to show? Is the point made clearly in a thesis

statement? How and how well does the analysis support the point?

TYPES OF CAUSES.

How well are the significant causes analyzed—the immediate

cause, the most important remote causes, the main cause, and the most important contributing

causes? What other causes (or effects) should be considered?

CAUSE OR COINCIDENCE?

At any point, is a coincidence mistaken for a cause?

Are all of the causes necessary to produce the intended effects? Do they have the power to

produce those effects?

VISUALS.

Are charts, graphs, or diagrams included to clarify causal relationships? If not,

would they be helpful? Are all visuals clearly and appropriately labeled?

 

 

WHO KILLED BENNY PARET?

Norman Cousins

Norman Cousins (1915-1990) was born in Union City, New Jersey, and graduated from Columbia

University’s Teachers College in 1933. He began his career in journalism writing for The New York

Evening Post and Current History magazine. In 1940 Cousins joined the Saturday Review, where he served

as editor from 1942 to 1978. Cousins lectured widely on world affairs, was a social critic and a strong

advocate of nuclear controls, and arranged for victims of the atomic bombing of Hiroshima to come to the

Untied States for medical treatment. From 1978 until his death, he was an adjunct professor in the

department of Psychiatry and biobehavioral science at U.C.L.A Medical School. Cousins published

numerous books, including many urging a positive outlook to combat illness: Anatomy of an Illness (1979),

about his own struggle with a life- threatening form of arthritis; Human options: An Autobiographical

Notebook (1981); Healing and Belief (1982); The Healing Heart: Antidotes to Panic and Helplessness

(1983); The Pathology of Power (1987); and his last book, about the effect of the emotions on the body’s

resistance to disease, Head First: The Biology of Hope (1989). In his 1962 essay “ Who Killed Benny

Paret?” Cousins Investigates the causes of a boxer’s death. In answering the question posed by his essay’s

title, Cousins takes a strong stand against violence in sports.

Sometime about 1935 or 1936 I had an interview with Mike Jacobs, the prize- fight

promoter. I was a fledgling reporter at that time; my beat was education but during the

vacation season I found myself on varied assignments, all the way from ship news to

sports reporting. In this way I found myself sitting opposite the most powerful figure in

the boxing world.

There was nothing spectacular in Mr. Jacobs’ manner or appearance; but when he

spoke about prize fights, he was no longer a bland little man but a colossus who sounded

the way Napoleon must have sounded when he reviewed a battle. You knew you were

listening to Number One. His saying something made it true.

We discussed what to him was the only important element in successful

promoting- how to please the crowd. So far as he was concerned, there was no mystery to

it. You put killers in the ring and the people filled your arena. You hire boxing artists-

men who are adroit at feinting, parrying, weaving, jabbing, and dancing, but who don’t

pack dynamite in their fists- and you wind up counting your empty seats. So you searched

for the killers and sluggers and maulers- fellows who could hit with the force of a

baseball bat.

I asked Mr. Jacobs if he was speaking literally when he said people came out to

see the killer.

“They don’t come out to see a tea party,” he said evenly. “They come out to see

the knockout. They come out to see a man hurt. If they think anything else, they’re

kidding themselves.”

Recently, a young man by the name of Benny Paret was killed in the ring. The

killing was seen by millions; it was on television. In the twelfth round, he was hit hard in

the head several times, went down, was counted out, and never came out of the coma.

The Paret fight produced a flurry of investigations. Governor Rockefeller was

shocked by what happened and appointed a committee to assess the responsibility. The

New York State Boxing Commission decided to find out what was wrong. The District

Attorney’s office expressed its concern. One question that was solemnly studied in all

three probes concerned the action of the referee. Did he act in time to stop the fight?

Another question had to do with the role of the examining doctors who certified the

physical fitness of the fighters before the bout. Still another question involved Mr. Paret’s

manager; did he rush his boy into the fight without adequate time to recuperate from the

previous one?

In short, the investigators looked into every possible cause except the real one.

Benny Paret was killed because the human fist delivers enough impact, when directed

against the head, to produce a massive hemorrhage in the brain. The human brain is the

most delicate and complex mechanism in all creation. It has a lacework of millions of

highly fragile nerve connections. Nature attempts to protect this exquisitely intricate

machinery by encasing it in a hard shell. Fortunately, the shell is thick enough to

withstand a great deal of pounding. Nature, however, can protect man against everything

except man himself. Not every blow to the head will kill a man- but there is always the

risk of concussion and damage to the brain. A prize fighter may be able to survive even

repeated brain concussions and go on fighting, but the damage to his brain may be

permanent.

In any event, it is futile to investigate the referee’s role and seek to determine

whether he should have intervened to stop the fight earlier. That is not where the primary

responsibility lies with the people who pay to see a man hurt. The referee who stops a

fight too soon from the crowd’s viewpoint can expect to be booed. The crowd wants the

knockout; it wants to see a man stretched out on the canvass. This is the supreme moment

in boxing. It is nonsense to talk about prize fighting as a test of boxing skills. No crowd

was ever brought to its feet screaming and cheering at the sight of two men beautifully

dodging and weaving out of each other’s jabs. The time the crowd comes alive is when a

man is hit hard over the heart or the head, when his mouthpiece flies out, when the blood

squirts out of his nose or eyes, when he wobbles under the attack and his pursuer

continues to smash at him with pole- axe impact.

Don’t blame it on the referee. Don’t even blame it on the fight managers. Put the

blame where it belongs- on the prevailing mores that regard prize fighting as a perfectly

proper enterprise and vehicle of entertainment. No one doubts that many people enjoy

prize fighting and will miss it if it should be thrown out. And that is precisely the point.

 

 

 

 

 

The Death of Benny Paret —Norman Mailer

 

Paret was a Cuban, a proud club fighter who had become welterweight champion because of his unusual ability to take a punch. His style of fighting was to take three punches to the head in order to give back two. At the end of ten rounds, he would still be bouncing, his opponent would have a headache. But in the last two years, over the fifteen-round fights, he had started to take some bad

maulings.This fight had its turns. Griffith won most of the early rounds, but Paret knocked Griffith down in the sixth. Griffith had trouble getting up, but made it, came alive and was dominating Paret again before the round was over. Then Paret began to wilt. In the middle of the eighth round, after a clubbing punch had turned his back to Griffith, Paret walked three disgusted steps away, showing his hindquarters. For a champion, he took much too long to turn back around. It was the first hint of weakness Paret had ever shown, and it must have inspired a particular shame, because he fought the rest of the fight as if he were seeking to demonstrate that he could take more punishment than any man alive. In the twelfth, Griffith caught him. Paret got trapped in a corner. Trying to duck away, his left arm and his head became tangled on the wrong side of the top rope. Griffith was in like a cat ready to rip the life out of a huge boxed rat. He hit him eighteen right hands in a row, an act which took perhaps three or four seconds, Griffith making a pent-up whimpering sound all the while he attacked, the right hand whipping like a piston rod which has broken through the crankcase, or like a baseball bat demolishing a pumpkin. I was sitting in the second row of that corner—

they were not ten feet away from me, and like everybody else, I was hypnotized. I had never seen one man hit another so hard and so many times. Over the referee’s face came a look of woe as if some spasm had passed its way through him, and then he leaped on Griffith to pull him away. It was the act of a brave man. Griffith was uncontrollable. His trainer leaped into the ring, his manager, his cut man, there were four people holding Griffith, but he was off on an orgy, he had left the Garden, he was back on a hoodlum’s street. If he had been able to break loose from his handlers and the referee, he would have jumped Paret to the floor and whaled on him there. And Paret? Paret died on his feet. As he took those eighteen punches something

happened to everyone who was in psychic range of the event. Some part of his death reached out to us. One felt it hover in the air. He was still standing in the ropes, trapped as he had been before, he gave some little half-smile of regret, as if he were saying, “I didn’t know I was going to die just yet,” and then, his head leaning back but still erect, his death came to breathe about him. He began to pass away. As he passed, so his limbs descended beneath him, and he sank slowly to the floor. He went down more slowly than any fighter had ever gone down, he went down like a large ship which turns on end and slides second by second into its grave. As he went down, the sound of Griffith’s punches echoed in the mind like a heavy ax in the distance chopping into a wet log.

 

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Complete the following and submit the Word document by midnight Sunday. Remember to include complete citations for all sources used to answer each question.

1. Using the illustration below, indicate which answer is in the direction of water movement.

a. Water will move into the cell. b. Water will move out of the cell. c. There will be equal amounts of water moving in and out of the cell. d. No movement.

 

2. The ribosomes are made in which cellular structure in the eukaryotic cell. _____

a. Rough endoplasmic reticulum b. Ribosobium complex c. Nucleolus d. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum e. Nucleus

3. Which of the following is not a major component of the plasma membrane? _____

a. phospholipids b. glycoproteins c. proteins d. DNA

4. The rough endoplasmic reticulum is the area in a cell where _______________ are synthesized.

5. The chloroplast functions in _________

a. lipid storage b. protein synthesis c. photosynthesis d. DNA replication

6. Cell membranes are made of two phospholipid layers called a ___

a. bilayer b. hydrophilic c. polarity d.semilayer

7. The nucleus is surrounded by a double layer membrane called the

a. nuclear matrix b. nuclear envelope c. cell membrane d. nucleus wall

8. Not all substances can cross the cell membrane, for this reason, the cell membrane is said to be ________

a. a barrier b. selectively permeable c. membrane bound d. a cell wall

9. The cell organelle that processes and packages for export substances produced by the cell is __

a. mitochondria b. ribosomes  c. Golgi apparatus d. ER

10. The cell organelle that digests molecules, old organelles, and foreign substances is the ____.

a. mitochondria b. ER c. Golgi apparatus d. lysosomes

11. Organelle involved in the synthesis of steroids in glands and the breakdown of toxic waste:

a. soft ER b. smooth ER c. rough ER d. mitochondria

12.The part of the cell that regulates movement of substances into and out of the cell is the

a. nucleus b. cell membrane c. Golgi apparatus d. mitochondrion

13.  Cells that have high energy requirement generally have many ______.

a. nuclei b. flagella c. mitochondria d. microfilaments

14.  Suspended in the eukaryotic cell’s cytosol are tiny  ____.

a. flagella b. organelles c. DNA d. nucleolus

15.  Organelle that transfers energy from organic compounds to ATP:  _____

a. mitochondria b. ribosomes c. lysosomes d. nucleus

16.  Organelle that converts sunlight, carbon dioxide and water into sugars:  _____

a. ribosomes b. lysosomes c. chloroplasts d. vacuole

17.  The fluid mosaic model presents the modern view of  _____

a. a membrane’s structure b. chromosomes c. aggregates of cells d. the nucleus

18.  Which is not a principle of the cell theory?  _____

a. All matter consists of at least one cell. b. Cells are the basic units of life. c. All cells arise from preexisting cells. d. All organisms are made of one or more cells.

19.  A cell membrane is a thin layer of lipid and _____.

a. monosaccharides b. protein c. chitin d. water

20.  Immerse a living cell in a isotonic solution, and water will tend to

a.  diffuse into the cell.          b.  diffuse out of the cell. c.  show no net movement. d.  move in by endocytosis.

21.  Sodium ions cross a membrane at transport proteins that receive an energy boost.  This is a case of

a.  passive transport. b.  active transport. c.  facilitated diffusion. d.  a and c.

22. Demonstrate your understanding of the three main types of cells we’ve learned about this unit by completing the following table:

Type	Bacteria	Plant Cell	Animal Cell
Prokaryotic or eukaryotic?	[[[[[[	[[[[[[	[[[[[[
Cell wall (Yes or No)	[[[[[[	[[[[[[	[[[[[[
Cell membrane (Yes or No)	[[[[[[	[[[[[[	[[[[[[
Nucleus (Yes or No)	[[[[[[	[[[[[[	[[[[[[
Chromosomes (Yes or No)	[[[[[[	[[[[[[	[[[[[[
Cilia and flagella (Yes or No)	[[[[[[	[[[[[[	[[[[[[
Mitochondria (Yes or No)	[[[[[[	[[[[[[	[[[[[[
Chloroplasts (Yes or No)	[[[[[[	[[[[[[	[[[[[[
Performs cellular respiration (Yes or No)	[[[[[[	[[[[[[	[[[[[[

 

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Name: _____________________

Bipedal Australopith?

 

OBJECTIVES

After completing this exercise, you should be able to:

Understand bipedalism

Compare and contrast the feet of several primates to identify bipedal abilities.

 

INTRODUCTION

Bipedalism is the act of walking on two feet. This can be habitually or for brief periods of time. The ability to walk bipedally in an efficient manner depends on great changes to the structure of the body. One of those changes comes from the foot.

 

EXERCISE

Anthropologists have argued about the bipedal abilities of our potential ancestors Australopithecus afarensis. Here you will compare your own foot to the foot of an Australopith and a chimpanzee to see where they fall. More human? More ape?

 

Part A:

Foot Measurements:

Determine whether A. afarensis had feet that more closely resembled modern humans or modern chimpanzees. (Remember that the primitive, or earliest, condition is expected to be more like that of a modern chimpanzee).

·

In this section of the activity, you will take three measurements: the distance between the hallux (big toe)

and the second toe, foot length (the length from the tip of the longest toe to the back of the heel), and foot width (the widest part of the foot usually around the toe area).

Actual size outlines of a chimpanzee foot and from an A. afarensis foot print preserved at Laetoli have

been provided for you.

 

1. Trace your bare foot on a clean sheet of paper (you can use the back of this lesson).

 

2. Using digital calipers or a ruler, measure in cm the distances according to the instructions.

Write your results in the space provided on the graph.

 

3. Calculate the hallux divergence index by dividing the foot width by the foot length.

 

 

4. Answer these questions based on your results:

 

What is bipedalism?

What are the earliest fossil hominins that show bipedalism?

What anatomical features are indicative of bipedalism?

Did Australopiths have a toe more similar to humans or apes? Give your reasoning.

 

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