HOMEWORK: MEDIA MISINFORMATION

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Overview

For this assignment, you will identify ways to evaluate media sources so that you can counteract medical misinformation.

Instructions

To complete this assignment, do the following:

  1. Read “Counteracting Health Misinformation: A Role for Medical Journals?” In the article, the author suggests ways to debunk medical myths through journals and media outlets.
  2. Identify an agent (physicians, elementary or secondary schools, colleges or universities, editors, journals, or other health professionals) and decide the best way to counteract health misinformation.
  3. Find one or more additional sources to support your reason for choosing this method of counteracting health misinformation.
  4. Use the Media Misinformation Source Evaluation Form to evaluate the credibility of the article chosen.
  5. Write a 1– 2 page paper to support your decision, using the additional resource you found.
  6. Write your evaluation using correct grammar, usage, spelling, without mechanical errors.
  7. Submit your assignment. All assignments are due at end of the unit, unless otherwise specified.

Note: Your instructor may use the Writing Feedback Tool when grading this assignment. The Writing Feedback Tool is designed to provide you with guidance and resources to develop your writing based on five core skills. You will find writing feedback in the Scoring Guide for the assignment, once your work has been evaluated. Learn more about the Writing Feedback Tool on the course Tools and Resources page.

Additional Requirements
  • Written communication: Written communication is free of errors that detract from the overall message.
  • Length: 1–2 double-spaced, typed pages.
  • Font and font size: Times New Roman, 12 point.
  • Scoring guide: Refer to the assignment scoring guide to ensure that you meet all criteria.

 

 
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Week 9 Assignmen

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Your Lab Signature Assignment is an oral report on a microbial disease. Create a three- to five-minute video response that includes the following:

Select a disease that affects humans or animals whose causative agent is a bacterium, virus, fungus, protozoa, or other microorganism.

Create and deliver a presentation on your chosen disease in which you report on each of the following in detail:

Causative Agent: Describe and classify the microbe involved. If known, explain how the microbe causes/transmits the disease or interferes with normal body function. Also, describe the vector and/or life cycle for the microbe (if applicable).

Population(s) affected: What population(s) is/are at highest risk of contracting the disease? Are there any groups of people who should be tested? Please include statistical/geographical data and trends (from the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, World Health Organization, or other source [http://www.cdc.gov, http://www.who.int, etc.]).

Course of Disease: What are the usual signs/symptoms of someone with the disease? How is the disease diagnosed? What is the usual time course for recovery? Are there complications and/or long-term effects?

Interventions: Describe possible treatments and/or medical interventions. Is there a vaccine available? How can the disease be best prevented or kept under control?
Videos can be recorded using any software or tool, but all videos are required to be uploaded to My Panopto Videos for assignment submission.

You can also use the Panopto Desktop Recording tool to create your video.

 
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Biology Problem Set Homework

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BICD 110 Fall 2020, Dr. Kiger

Problem Set 9 Lectures 9A, 9B, 10A

 

Mitosis and Cell cycle

 

1. Which of the following occurs with the mitotic spindle during anaphase A?

 

___A. The spindle elongates.

___B. Kinetochores remain attached to shortening kinetochore microtubules.

___C. Chromosomes move to the spindle equator.

___D. The spindle poles move closer together.

___E. Centrioles duplicate to form the mitotic spindle.

 

 

2. Fill in the blanks. Cell cycle _________________ are critical points when the cell cycle progress can be stopped temporarily if a previous step has occurred incorrectly. One major checkpoint is at the transition from __________to __________phase, when cells become irreversibly committed to cell division. Another checkpoint involves surveillance for critical cell size and lack of _________________damage to ensure that cells are prepared to build the mitotic spindle upon transition from __________to __________phase.

3. Xenopus oocyte cytoplasmic extracts can be induced to undergo mitosis upon the addition of sperm nuclei. What would happen and why in RNase-treated extracts?

 

___(a) cells would undergo mitosis but then arrest, due to absence of new cyclin synthesis

___(b) cells would fail to undergo mitosis, due to absence of new cyclin synthesis

___(c) cells would complete mitosis, due to constant Cdk levels not requiring new synthesis

___(d) cells would fail to enter mitosis, due to absence of new Cdk synthesis

 

 

4. Name the stage(s) in the cell cycle [G1, S, G2, and/or M] when each event takes place:

There may be one or more than one right answer, so list all that apply.

 

________Chromosome segregation

________DNA synthesis

________Spindle pole (centrosome) duplication

________Spindle formation

________Cell growth

________Mitotic Cdk protein present (Cdk2)

________Mitotic cyclin protein present (Cyclin A/B)

________Gene expression of DNA replication machinery

________APC complex activity

fg19_un04.jpg fg19_un04.jpg 5. Tony Hunt received the Nobel Prize (2001) for experiments in sea urchin egg extracts that uncovered cell cycle-dependent Cyclin degradation (Figure). Using radiolabeling of synchronized extracts over 10 minute timepoints, he found that Cyclin protein levels oscillated, always peaking just before the next mitotic division.

Cyclin

 

 

(a) Clearly label on the graph which data curve reflects, (1) Cyclin levels and which reflects (2) the percent cells in mitosis.

 

(b) What cell cycle transition, or checkpoint, is regulated by the Cyclins that Hunt discovered? (specify the stages!)

 

 

(c) Explain what the results would look like if you repeated the experiment using a mutant Cyclin unable to be poly-ubiquitinated? Why?

 

 

 

 

 

 

(d) You perform a similar experiment using an antibody to detect Cyclin in fruit fly embryo extracts and observe similar oscillations during the synchronous mitotic divisions of early wildtype development. You isolate mutants that disrupt the cell cycle and the oscillating Cyclin levels.

 

(i) In one mutant, you observe a constant level of Cyclin, unlike the oscillations seen in wildtype. The mutant carries a Cdk loss-of-function mutation that results in a ‘dead’ kinase, which is constantly inactive for Cdk kinase function. Propose how this mutant might result in constant Cyclin levels and a cell cycle phenotype.

 

 

 

 

(ii) You repeat the experiment, except this time with wildtype embryos in the presence of DNA damaging compounds during S phase. Predict how the profiles of both Cyclin levels and percent cells in mitosis could be affected and why in these experiments?

 

 

 

 

 

 

Cell cycle and cancer

 

6. Aneuploidy (an aberrant number of chromosomes) that is commonly associated with cancer is most likely to result from:

 

___ A. DNA repair

___ B. failure of the spindle assembly checkpoint

___ C. activation of the DNA replication checkpoint

___ D. microtubule dynamic instability

 

7. TRUE or FALSE?

Tumor suppressors and proto-oncogenes have roles in normal growth of healthy tissues.

 

 

8. (i) Describe gain-of-function and loss-of-function mutations with respect to cancer, and relate to proto-oncogenes and tumor-suppressor genes.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

(ii) Proto-oncogenes are often “switch proteins” that normally act in signal transduction pathways. (a) Name one general protein type that acts as switch proteins, AND (b) give a specific proto-oncogene example. (c) Explain why/how “switch proteins” are particularly susceptible to becoming oncogenic mutations.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

9. Given the FACS plot data below, identify which samples X or Y reflect the predicted results with temperature sensitive mutation conditions below. Why?

 

(i) CDC20 (a component of anaphase promoting complex): Loss of function mutation.

 

(ii) Double mutant

Cdk: Mutations that drive Cdk overactivity for constitutive Rb phosphorylation.

Cyclin E: Mutations that destabilize Cyclin E protein.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

1

 
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Lab Report

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1107 Lab Report: Enzymes

Spring 2021

Draft due: March 7th before midnight

Final Report due: March 21st before midnight

Each student will write a lab report on their experiment on the breakdown of gelatin by enzymes.

Length and formatting: There is a minimum length of 4 pages, but be sure to discuss the topic and meet the guidelines on the rubric. Font should be standard (E.g. Times New Roman, Arial, Calibri, etc.) and 12 or less.

Content: Include the following sections and items to earn full credit (see the rubric for how each report will be graded).

· Note on plagiarism: Put information in your own words. This means combining multiple sources of information, placing facts from a source into your context, re-writing information as though you are explaining it orally to your classmates.

Plagiarism will result in a zero and a report to OSCCR ; this includes but is not limited to:

· quoting another’s work (including other students) without quotations,

· using the ideas/knowledge from another’s work without citation (common knowledge is fine),

· taking another’s paragraph and shuffling sentences around,

· taking a list and shuffling word order,

· Replacing words in a phrase with synonyms and failing to cite the source,

· Using a graph or table created by another

· Ask your instructor if you are not sure!

1. Abstract: The summary of the paper.

a) Clearly summarize the objectives.

b) Provide a clear and concise summary of results and conclusions.

2. Introduction and objective/hypotheses: Describe what we need to know about enzymes and gelatin to understand your experiment (don’t forget to cite your sources). If possible, describe a few scientific publications (also known as “scientific literature”) that conducted experiments related to your experiment.

a) The background should lead to the objectives.

b) The objective should be clearly stated and related to the background.

c) Clear connections should be made to literature related to the background and objectives.

3. Methods: Describe what you did and list your materials.

a) Include a thorough explanation of experimental methods and analyses used (E.g. what type of statistical test, what brand of gelatin, how the liquid remaining was measured, etc.), and how these relate to the objective.

b) Describe any inconsistencies or problems encountered.

i. NOTE: You will not lose points for making a mistake or using a slightly different method than you were supposed to! Some of the best discoveries are made by mistakes. Just be honest and descriptive so we can repeat your experiment if it works even better, or know what to warn other students about next time.

4. Results: The quantitative data and qualitative observations recorded during the experiment and at the end of the experiment. This is usually in a series of tables and figures, with text describing these tables and figures as well as data unsuited for tables or figures.

a) For full credit, present a substantial amount of high quality information and data addressing your objective.

b) Examples of results for this experiment:

i. Amount of liquid at the beginning and end of the experiment in each cup, in a table and in descriptive text;

ii. approximate amount and condition of solid gelatin at the beginning end of the experiment in table and in text;

iii. description of the appearance of the gelatin before and after;

iv. photos (Figures) of the gelatin before and after, clearly labeled;

v. …etc. Videos are also occasionally included in results.

c) Figures, tables, and graphs should have captions and be referenced in the text.

d) Any statistics go here, too

5. Discussion: What the results mean, how they compare to other published experiments (is this a consistent result or not consistent?), how they can be used, recommendations for policy/future research/daily life, questions that remain, what experiment you’d want to do next, how the results add to scientific knowledge, etc.

a) There’s a lot you can do with this section. Have fun and focus on your interests. Just make sure to cite your sources of information, as well as:

b) Draw a clear link between all presented results and the objectives.

c) State the broader implications, with appropriate use of literature.

d) Make a substantial statement of future research that can be done using these results.

6. References

a) Use APA format unless your instructor states otherwise.

i. Be careful with citations generators, as they’re often wrong. Double-check their suggestions.

ii. Example of APA format for a journal article (Feb 2021) : Author, A. A., Author, B. B., & Author, C. C. (Year). Title of article. Title of Periodical, volume number(issue number), pages. https://doi.org/xx.xxx/yyyy

iii. Refer to a website such as OWL from Purdue University for current guidelines.

b) Information from at least 2 peer-reviewed journal articles should be used and cited within the paper.

i. This does NOT mean Livestrong, WebMD, Wikipedia, Healthline, MayoClinic, etc.

c) All sources must be reliable.

i. In most cases, this does NOT mean Livestrong, WebMD, Healthline, Wikipedia.

ii. If you’re not sure, ask your instructor!

iii. Please refer to the “Reliable Sources and Where to Find Them” handout (title subject to change; ask your instructor if you can’t find it)

Refer to the “Sample lab report” for an example!

 
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HCA 459 Week 2 Senior Project Summary Paper ( HCA/459 Week 2 Senior Project Summary Paper )

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HCA459 Week 2 Senior Project Summary Paper 

 

 

Write a Senior Project Summary paper on the selected topic from Week One. In your paper include the following:

1.      Title Page

1.      Anticipated title (this may change for the completed project)

2.      Your name

3.      Course name and number

4.      Instructor’s name

5.      Date submitted

2.      Introduction: Provide a description of your selected topic (i.e., health care trend) and a thesis statement. Identify the organization that you have chosen to address, including why the issue of your selected topic is important to the health care administrators in your organization, and to the health care industry in general. This should be about one-third of a page.

3.      Scope of the Senior Project: This section should summarize the content topics and sub-topics related to the health care trend that will be addressed in the Senior Project.

4.      Discussion: This section should be a constructive and analytical overview of what was found in the scholarly and professional literature. Make sure to discuss the pros/cons or strengths/weaknesses of the stakeholder group impacted (e.g., patient, provider, third-party payer, administrator, legislator, etc.) as applicable. In developing this section, it is important to demonstrate your understanding of the topic and the interventions and influences. This should be about one page.

5.      Conclusion:  Provide a summary of the main effects of the contemporary health care trend on costs, quality, and access to services as it impacts various stakeholder groups.

 

6.      Reference Page

 

 

 

HCA 459 Week 2 Individual Assignment Senior Project Summary Paper

HCA 459 Week 2 Senior Project Summary Paper

HCA/459 Week 2 Senior Project Summary Paper

HCA459 Week 2 Senior Project Summary

 

HCA 459 Week 2 Senior Project Summary Paper

 
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Human Growth And Development Assignment 4

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ASSIGNMENT 04

S03 Human Growth and Development I

Directions: Be sure to save an electronic copy of your answer before submitting it to Ashworth College for grading. Unless otherwise stated, answer in complete sentences, and be sure to use correct English, spelling, and grammar. Sources must be cited in APA format. Your response should be four (4) double‐spaced pages; refer to the “Format Requirementsʺ page located at the beginning of this learning guide for specific format requirements.

 

Respond to the items below.

 

Part A

 

Consider the lifespan development process and describe the following changes in the infant from content supported in your text.

 

1.     Physical changes

2.     Cognitive changes

3.     Nutritional needs/changes

4.     Sensory changes

 

Part B

 

Provide an explanation of the nature/nurture controversy as it pertains to each of the following.

 

1.     Prenatal Development

2.     Labor

3.     Birth

4.     Birth Complications

 

5.     Development of the Competent Newborn

 
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Written Assignment 1: Trace The Scientific Method In A Primary Research Scientific Article

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Written Assignment 1: Trace the Scientific Method in a Primary Research Scientific Article

Addresses course outcomes 1 and 4:

 

•use knowledge of biological principles and the scientific method to ask and answer relevant questions about the human body

•weigh and make health-related decisions based on an understanding of the value and limits of scientific knowledge and the scientific method

Before attempting this assignment, you might want to revisit the Scientific Method Tutorial in the Science Learning Center under the Course Content area.

 

Substance in Green Tea Inhibits Inflammatory Breast Cancer Cells

 

Inflammatory breast cancer (IBC) is a rare and often fatal form of breast cancer.  In IBC, lymphatic vessels in the skin are blocked causing the breasts to appear swollen and red.  Early in the disease process, patients with IBC usually do not have the classic “lump” in their breast; therefore the disease is frequently diagnosed at later stages.  Diagnosis is often so delayed that the cancer has metastasized and patient prognosis is poor.

 

The underlying cause of IBC is unknown, but it is believed that like with other cancers cetain cell types have the abililty to transform into cells that can form malignant tumors.  These aberrant cells are considered cancer stem cells, and populations of cancer stem cells have been identified in IBC.

 

In a recent, study researchers evaluated whether a metabolite found in green tea could inhibit the growth of certain stem cell types that have been identified in the breast tissue of patients with IBC.  In this study, two IBC stem cell types, SUM-149 and SUM-190, were exposed epigallocatechin-3-gallate (EGCG- is a potent antioxidant found in green tea).  Results from the study showed that EGCG treatment inhibited the growth, spread, and survival of the two stem cell types.

 

For the following questions, please refer to the original paper.  The link to the paper is:http://www.plosone.org/article/fetchObject.action?uri=info%3Adoi%2F10.1371%2Fjournal.pone.0073464&representation=PDF

 

1.What is the overall hypothesis of this experiment? (Reminder: a hypothesis is a statement that can be tested).

2.In the Materials and Methods section of the paper, the authors discuss the cell culture and treatment conditions.  What was the control group treated with in this section (make sure to look only at the Cell Culture and Treatment section of the paper)?  Why?

3.Again, looking only at the Cell Culture and Treatment section, what was the experimental group treated with?  Why?

4.In the Results section of the paper, the authors clearly summary their multiple findings.  In the “EGCG Reduces Growth of Pre-existing Tumors Derived from SUM-149 Stem-like Cells” results sub-section, the authors report a specfic finding.  What specific result do the researchers report?

5.Did the researchers follow the scientific method in their experimental design?  Explain.

6.Based on the results, was the hypothesis supported, and what can you conclude from this experiment?

 
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Anthropology Assignment ( Due In 18 Hours)

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Assignment 4: Variations on a Human Face

Follow the link to access this week’s readings. Be sure to read each of the THREE sections. You can do so by hitting the “next topic” button located at the bottom of each screen.

http://anthro.palomar.edu/mendel/mendel_1.htm

After completing the three pages of readings, move to the following assignment.

Single Allele Traits

1. Flip a coin to determine the gender of the offspring, if the coin lands heads up, the offspring is female, if tails, then the offspring is male. What sex is your offspring?

2. For all coin tosses from now on, heads will represent the dominant allele and tails will represent the recessive allele. For each trait (hair, eye, skin, and all other traits on the chart), you will flip a coin to determine the GENOTYPE of your offspring. Flip the coin twice (once from each parent) for each pair of alleles.

Example: For the shape of the face, your partner tossed heads and you tosses tails. This means the offspring’s genotype is Rr and the child will have a round face, so check that box. If you had both tossed tails, you would check the square-shaped face (rr) and if you had both tossed heads, you would have a round shaped face (RR)

3. Circle the box that represents your offspring’s appearance, or PHENOTYPE, in the chart.

4. Type up your responses and submit your work as a word document.

 

 

Polygenic Traits – Hair, Eye, Skin

Some traits are controlled by more than two genes, such as hair color, eye color and skin color. For these traits you will need to perform a different procedure to determine your offspring’s phenotype.

Hair color

Dark hair is dominant over light. To determine the color of the offspring’s hair, assume there are two gene pairs involved (there are actually probably more than that, but for the purpose of this activity, let’s not go crazy). Flip your coin first to determine the genotype of the first pair of alleles (AA, Aa, or aa). Now,

flip the coins again to determine the genotype of the second pair of alleles (BB, Bb, or bb). Match the genotype you have to the hair color on the chart. Circle your offspring’s hair color.

If the genotype is…. The hair color is….

AABB black

AABb black

AAbb red

AaBB brown

Aabb regular blonde

AaBb brown

aaBB dark blonde

aaBb regular blonde

aabb pale yellow blond

 

Eye Color

Dark eyes are dominant over light. To determine the color of the offspring’s eyes, assume there are two gene pairs involved, one which codes for depositing pigment in the front of the iris, and one which codes for depositing pigment n the back of the iris. Determine the genotype of the first pair (AA, Aa, or aa) Then flip again to determine the genotype of the second pair (BB,

Bb, or bb). Use the chart below to find out what eye color your offspring has and circle it.

If the genotype is…. The eye color is….

AABB dark brown

AABb dark brown

AAbb brown

AaBB brown with green flecks

Aabb brown

AaBb gray

aaBB green

aaBb dark blue

aabb light blue

 

 

Skin Color

Skin color is controlled by a lot of different genes that basically add together to determine how dark the skin is and variations in tone. To simulate how skin color might be determined. Flip a single coin 10 times. Each time the coin turns up heads, give your offspring a point. Add your points together. 10 points would be a very dark child and 1 point would be a very pale child. How many points does your child have?

 

Analysis and Conclusions (Please provide your written responses to the following questions.)

1. Begin your written assignment by offering the physical attributes of your child, based upon

your coin tosses. Then answer the following questions.

 

2. How might it be possible for you to show a trait that neither parent demonstrates?

 

3. Which traits are co-dominant or incompletely dominant? (Traits that do not have a clear

dominant or recessive characteristic, but rather, the heterozygous condition shows a

“blending” or a “middle” condition)

 

4. Why did you have to flip the coin twice to determine hair and eye color?

 

5. Show the cross of a wavy haired person with a wavy haired person by diagraming a

Punnett square.

 

6. You have large, almond shaped eyes and curly hair. You mate with a person that

demonstrates straight hair and small eyes and ears. Does this information tell you anything

about the personality of your future offspring? Why is this so? How did you reach your

conclusion?

 

7. Tell me about three of your physical characteristics. Do your parents possess the same

phenotypes? Are phenotypes always the same as genotypes, why?

 

8. Explain what you learned by completing this assignment. Be sure to use appropriate terms

and concepts in your written summary.

 
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Biology Homework ASAP ( DUE IN 10 HOURS)

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Read the Lab 12 procedures and watch the online Hardy-Weinberg video (https://youtu.be/xPkOAnK20kw and posted on BlackBoard), then complete this assignment prior to lab.

1.     The Hardy-Weinberg Theorem states…

 

2.     What are the five key assumptions that are necessary for the H-W Theorem to be valid?

 

 

3.     Write the Hardy-Weinberg equation:

 

 

4.     Dominant allele “R” has a frequency (p) of 0.45 in a particular gene pool. Calculate the following showing all your work and using the proper variables for each value (e.g. p, q, p2, q2, 2pg).

a.     The frequency of allele “r” in that same gene pool?

 

 

b.     The proportion of the population that has the genotype RR.

 

 

c.     The proportion of the population that has the genotype Rr.

 

 

d.     The proportion of the population that has the genotype rr.

 

 

5.     If 17% of a population displays the recessive trait for Disease B, what are the frequencies of the recessive allele “b” and the dominant allele “B” in the gene pool?

 

 

 

6.     You perform an experiment where you allow a large population of fruit flies to mate randomly. The parental generation had 30% homozygous recessive genotypes. The F1 generation consisted of 100 flies, 40 of which displayed the recessive trait. Calculate the expected values for each phenotype assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, then fill in the table below and use the Chi-Square test instructions document (posted online) to compare your calculated X2 value with the tabulated X2 value for a P-value of 0.05.

  # of dominant phenotype individuals # of recessive phenotype individuals
Observed value (o)    
Expected value (e)    
Deviation (o – e) = d    
d2    
d2/e    
Calculated Chi-square (X2) = Σd2/e  
Degrees of Freedom  
Tabulated X2 value at P=0.05

(from X2 instructions document)

  

 

a.     According to your analysis above, are the observed proportion of genotypes in the F1 generation the same, or significantly different, than those expected according to the H-W theorem?

 

 

 

b.     If you allowed your F1 generation to mate, what would you expect the frequency of the recessive allele (q) to be in the F2 generation, assuming the H-W theorem applies?

 
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Need Help

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Chapter 16: Renal System and Male reproductive System

 

1. The activation of angiotensin does which of the following:

 

a. Vasoconstriction             b. Increase the resorption of sodium and water            c. Increase blood volume   d. Decrease blood volume

 

2. A 56 year old male presents to the clinic with the following complaints: increased urgency and frequency of urination, fever, malaise.  Urinalysis reveals cloudy urine with white blood cells and bacteria present.  Which of the following is a likely diagnosis?

 

a. Benign prostatic hypertrophy       b. Chlamydia       c. acute bacterial prostatitis               d. Prostate cancer

 

3. A 32-year-old man comes to his physician complaining of frequency, dysuria, and urgency for several days, as well as pain in the perineal region. The digital rectal examination is extremely painful. He most likely has

 

A. A primary chancre of syphilis in his genital organs                  B. A bladder infection        C. Pyelonephritis                  D. Kidney stones

E. Acute prostatitis

 

4. One of the kidneys of an 18-month-old girl is removed because she has had repeated urinary tract infections. The kidney is smaller than normal and contains many cysts. Microscopic examination shows poorly developed and disorganized glomeruli, and tubules and islands of cartilage in the cortex. The renal pelvis, calyces, and proximal ureter are dilated. The other kidney appears entirely normal. This condition is called

 

A. Potter’s syndrome          B. Infantile polycystic kidney disease             C. Horseshoe kidney           D. Renal agenesis

E. Renal dysplasia

 

5. Which of the following patients is not at increased risk for developing a urinary tract infection?

 

A. A 73-year-old, demented man with an indwelling urinary catheter

B. A 25-year-old, recently married woman

C. A 2-year-old boy with ureteral reflux

D. An 82-year-old man with severe prostatic hypertrophy

E. A 70-year-old man with prostatic carcinoma

 

6. A 56-year-old man has a hard, irregular lump in the posterior lobe of his prostate. Which of the following signs or symptoms would most likely be present?

 

A. Elevated prostate specific antigen                              B. Hematuria                       C. Casts in the urine

D. Urinary frequency                                                          E. Dysuria

 

7. A 69-year-old man presents to the clinician complaining of unilateral flank pain and hematuria for several weeks. He does not have a fever. The physician can palpate a mass in the patient’s right flank. The best way to diagnose this patient’s condition is:

 

A. Cystoscopy                      B. Intravenous pyelogram                 C. Cytologic examination of urine

D. CT scan                            E. Digital rectal exam

 

8.  The most common causes of dialysis-dependence in the United States are

 

A. Urinary tract infection and pyelonephritis           B. Membranous and mesangial nephropathy due to systemic lupus erythematosus

C. Hypertension and diabetes                                           D. Congenital conditions such as polyceptic kidney disease

E. Various types of renal cell carcinomas

 

9. All of the following are treatments for urolithiasis except:

 

I. Large volumes of water                  II. Lithotripsy                       III. Pain medications                          IV. Ultrasound

 

a. I and II              b. II and III          c. I and III            d. I, II, and III                      e. All of the above

 

 

10 Functions of the nephron include all of the following except

 

A. Reabsorption of urea nitrogen     B. Fluid homeostasis                           C. Maintaining electrolyte balance

D. Regulation of blood pressure       E. Maintaining blood pH

 

Chapter 17: Female Reproductive System

 

1. A 24-year-old female presents to the clinic with complaints of headache, a rash on her palms, soles, and mucus membranes.  Which of the following is a likely diagnosis?

 

A. secondary syphilis                          B. Chlamydia                       C. Gonorrhea        D. Pelvic inflammatory disease

 

2. A 22-year-old female presents to the clinic with complaints of vaginal itching and pain, and thick cottage cheese like discharge.  Which of the following is a likely diagnosis?

 

A. Trichomoniasis               B. Candidiasis                      C. Herpes simplex virus                      D. Human papillomavirus

 

3. Meigs syndrome is the occurrence of ascites and right-sided hydrothorax associated with which of the following:

 

A. Teratoma                         B. Leiomyoma                     C. Fibrothecoma                  D. Leukoplakia

 

4. A 71-year-old woman who has never been pregnant and always had normal Pap tests notices spotty vaginal bleeding. Work-up is performed and a biopsy reveals cancer. Which is she most likely to have?

 

A. Stage I endometrial carcinoma                   B. Stage IV cervical carcinoma        C. Stage I ovarian cancer

D. Stage III endometrial carcinoma                                E. Stage I vulvar carcinoma

 

5. A 36-year-old woman, following an evaluation for infertility, is told that her fallopian tubes have excessive scar tissue, thus not allowing the ovum to travel to the uterus at the time of ovulation. This is most likely due to             remote:

 

A. Ovarian cyst                    B. Herpes infection             C. Gonorrhea        D. Trichomoniasis               E. Syphilis

 

6. A 56-year-old, otherwise perfectly healthy woman comes to the doctor complaining of vulvar itching. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

 

A. Trichomoniasis               B. Lichen simplex chronicus             C. Squamous cell carcinoma

D. Herpes simplex virus      E. Candidiasis

 

7. A 26-year-old woman who is otherwise healthy and has normal menstrual cycles complains of diffuse pelvic pain that is worse during menstruation. She also has recently developed pain with defecation and sexual intercourse. An ultrasound reveals a large cyst on one of her ovaries. This cyst is likely

 

A. A malignant serous carcinoma                    B. Pseudomyxoma peritonei             C. A teratoma

D. An endometrioma                                          E. A benign fibroma

 

8. A 36-year-old woman, following an evaluation for infertility, is told that her fallopian tubes have excessive scar tissue, thus not allowing the ovum to travel to the uterus at the time of ovulation. This is most likely due to             remote:

 

A. Ovarian cyst                    B. Herpes infection             C. Gonorrhea        D. Trichomoniasis               E. Syphilis

 

9. A 45-year-old woman is being evaluated for dysfunctional uterine bleeding. Pelvic examination reveals a large, lumpy uterus. According to the patient’s medical record, a large, lumpy uterus was noted at her last pelvic examination five years earlier. The most likely diagnosis is:

 

A. Uterine carcinoma                          B. Leiomyomata                 C. Cervical carcinoma        D. Pregnancy

E. Polycystic ovary disease

 

10. An obese, 28-year-old with hirsutism, irregular menstrual cycles, and a history of gonorrhea infection is being evaluated for infertility. Which of the following conditions is least likely to be contributing to her infertility?

 

A. Pelvic inflammatory disease        B. Endometriosis                 C. Obesity             D. Leiomyomata

E. Polycystic ovary disease

 

 

Chapter 18: Breast

 

1. Which of the following are risk factors for the development of breast cancer?

 

I. Exogenous estrogen therapy                         II. Early menarche              III. Late menopause           IV. Not breast-feeding

V. Obesity

 

A. I, III, and V     B. II, III, and IV                  C. II, III, and V                    D. I, II, and III     E. All of the above

 

2. A 36-year-old woman who had her last baby six years ago develops milky secretions from both her nipples. She is not pregnant and has no other health problems. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

 

A. Pituitary tumor                B. Fibroadenoma                C. Intraductal papilloma      D. Breast cancer                               E. Duct ectasia

 

3. A 30-year-old woman is breast-feeding her newborn infant. One of her breasts becomes red, swollen and very tender, and she develops fever. Which of the following statements is most correct?

 

A. She has developed inflammatory breast cancer.

B. She should be treated with antibiotics.

C. She should discontinue breast feeding, and the changes will go away on their own.

D. She should consult a lactation specialist to help the baby latch on to the nipple better.

E. The condition will likely recur if she continues to breast feed.

 

4. A 45-year-old woman has a breast biopsy of a 2 cm in diameter lump. The pathologist makes a diagnosis of fibrocystic disease. The microscopic finding that predicts later development of cancer is

 

A. Ductal hyperplasia         B. Large cysts       C. Excessive adipose tissue        D. Larger than normal lobules        E. Lactational change.

 

5. A 27-year-old woman whose grandmother, mother, and older sister have all died of breast or ovarian carcinoma is contemplating starting a family. She should be advised that

 

A. she should have had bilateral mastectomy and oophorectomy at puberty to prevent the development of cancer in these tissues.

B. she should not have children because increased estrogen levels during pregnancy and lactation will stimulate the growth of cancer.

C. she should adopt, so that she doesn’t transmit her bad genes to the next generation.

D. testing for genes known to impart a greater risk for breast cancer is available, and knowing for sure that she is a carrier of the gene will help her with decision-making.

E. she does not need to start screening for breast cancer earlier than the general population because screening modalities are not effective in detecting breast cancer in young women.

 

6. Which of the following statements about breast cancer in men is correct?

 

A. The lifetime risk is the same as for women

B. It is usually lobular carcinoma

C. It can occur in familial cancer syndromes

D. It usually occurs at the same age as testicular cancer

E. It is more common than melanoma skin cancer

 

Chapter 19: Skin

 

1. A child presents to the clinic with chief complaint of flaccid bullae on her face that have ruptured and formed a crust.  The mother reports there are several children at the daycare with similar lesions.  Which of the following is a likely diagnosis?

a. Candidiasis                       b. Tinea                 c. Treponema pallidum                      d. Impetigo

 

2. A life-threatening skin infection caused by a severe drug reaction is:

a. Candidiasis                       b. Treponema pallidum                      c. Toxic epidermal necrolysis            d. Eruptive xanthoma

 

3. A patient presents at the clinic with large, raised, papillated, dry lesion on the plantar surface of the left foot.  He says he has been watching it grow for a while and it has been painful from time to time.  This growth is cause by

a. S. aureus                           b. P. acnes             c. Human papillomavirus                  d. all of these

 

4. A patient reports to the clinic complaining of patchy, red, raised edematous areas that itch.  The patient does not currently have any, but states it happens periodically, and they last for about a day before fading.  The clinician diagnoses the patient with urticaria.  Which of the following is responsible for these lesions?

a. Histamine release            b. Malassezia furfur yeast exposure                                c. Long exposure to sunlight              d.  Emotional stress

 

5.  A 19 year old woman is seen by a dermatologist for red crusty lesions on her neck wrists and the backs of her knees.  Other members of her family have a similar affliction.  Which of these is most likely the correct diagnosis?

a. impetigo            b. acne                   c. contact dermatitis                           d. eczema

 

6. A 35 year old man is treated by UV light for a chronic skin rash characterized by patches of thickened skin with silver scales on the knees and elbows.  Which condition is mostly his problem?

a. urticarial                            b. seborrheic keratosis                        c. psoriasis                             d. atopic dermatitis

 

7. Mrs. Collins was born with a rare condition called xeroderma pigmentosum.  Which of these activates should she avoid?

a. using a tanning bed                         b. swimming in an indoor pool          c. swimming in salt water                   d. playing basketball

 

8. Uncle Fred returns from the dermatologist with news that he has skin cancer but he can’t remember what type.  You examine the lesion to find it is a papule with an ulcer in the center.  What type of skin cancer does Uncle Fred heave?

a. melanoma                        b. basal cell carcinoma                       c. squamous cell carcinoma              d. nevus

 

9. During your shift at the rural health clinic a young boy is brought in by his mother.  The child has a red, scaly rash formed into rings in his hair.  What is the most probably diagnosis?

a. Tinea cruris                      b. Tinea pedis                       c. Tinea capitis                    d. Tinea barbae

 

10. Mr. Akers is a 68 year old male in good health.  He comes to the clinic complaining of severe pain, burning sensation, and numbness but itchy rash.  The rash is located at his waist and is in a belt-like shape on the right side.  The rash is beginning to scab.  Looking at his medical history you note that he had chicken pox as a child as well as measles, rubella and mumps.  What is the most probable diagnosis?

a. dermatitis                          b. shingles                              c. acne                   d. epidermal necrosysis

 

 

Chapter 21: Bones and Joints

 

1.  Concerned parents bring their infant to the clinic saying the child has been crying inconsolably for hours. Physical exam reveals the infant cries harder when palpating the clavicular region, and note the infant has blue tinged sclera. X-ray reveals a broken clavicle. The parents can offer no explanation. Which of the following is a likely diagnosis?

 

A. Marfan Syndrome                         B. Osteogenesis imperfecta               C. Child abuse      D. Achodroplasia

 

2.  A patient presents to the emergency department with complaint of sudden chest pain and shortness of breath. Physical exam reveals a tall, thin male with pectus excavatum (a sunken sternum). Which of the following is a likely diagnosis?

 

a. Spontaneous pneumothorax in a patient with Marfan syndrome

b. Spontaneous pneumothorax in a patient with achondroplasia

c. Spontaneous pneumothorax in a patient with osteogenesis imperfecta

d. Spontaneous pneumothorax in a patient with torticollis

 

3.  A 48-year-old male presents to the clinic with complaints of joint stiffness. X-rays reveals new bone formation with lipping. Which of the following is a likely diagnosis?

 

a. Osteomalacia                   b. Rheumatoid arthritis                      c. Degenerative arthritis                      d. Gout

 

4.  Baby Jonie is born with one foot turned equino, varus, metatarsus adductus and cavus deformity.  She has

a. dysplasia of the hip                        b. clubfoot                            c. torticollis                            d. achondroplasia

 

5.  Her twin brother Joseph is born with a genetic mutation of the FGRF 3.  He has

a. dysplasia of the hip                        b. clubfoot                            c. torticollis                            d. achondroplasia

 

6. Andrew is 10 years old and loves to climb trees.  Andrew fell while climbing his favorite magnolia tree and broke his ulna.  The x-ray reveals that the injured ulna is broken into 4 small pieces.  What type of fracture is this?

a. incomplete                        b. complete                           c. comminuted                     d. compression

 

7. Four days later Andrew’s great grandmother, Memaw, tripped over her kitty, Precious, fell, and broke the neck of her right femur.  Given her age, which of the following probably contributed to Memaw’s fracture?

a. osteomyelitis                    b. osteoporosis                     c. osteomalacia                    d. septic arthritis

 

8. Michelle is taking a conducting class at ETBU.  Her professor suggests that she video herself while conducting.  Michelle notices that she is awkwardly bent at the hips and shoulders.  Which problem of the spine is the most likely cause of her posture?

a. kyphosis            b. compression fracture of vertebra                 c. herniated intervertebral  disc         d. scoliosis

 

9. Rheumatoid factor is an antibody directed against

a. the pannus                        b. immunoglobulin G                          c. the synovium                   d. joint cartilage

 

Chapter 22: Muscles and Nerves

 

1. A difference between Duchenne Dystrophy and myotonic dystrophy is:

 

Duchenne dystrophy is an autosomal dominant disease, while myotonic dystrophy is sex-linked

Myotonic dystrophy is an autosomal dominant disease, while Duchenne dystrophy is sex-linked

Duchenne is characterized by progressive weakness

Myotonic dystrophy features the replacement of muscle by adipose and fibrous tissue

 

2. In which disease are antibodies against the acetylcholine receptor found in serum?

 

Guillain-Barre       B. Werdnig-Hoffman                         C. Myasthenia gravis          D. Rhabdomyosarcoma

 

3.  A patient presents to the emergency department with new onset paralysis in the peripheral limbs.  The patient reports they recovered from a viral illness the previous week.  Which of the following is a likely diagnosis?

 

A. Guillain-Barre B. Werdnig-Hoffman         C. Myasthenia gravis          D. Rhabdomyosarcoma

 

4.  A patient presents to the clinic with complaint of weakness, pain, and tenderness.  Laboratory exam reveals elevated creatine kinase levels, and a muscle biopsy reveals lymphocytic infiltration of muscle fibers.  Which of the following diagnoses is likely?

 

A.  Guillain-Barre B. Polymyositis                    C. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis                     D. Myasthenia Gravis

 

5. A patient presents to the emergency department with new onset paralysis in the peripheral limbs.  The patient reports they recovered from a viral illness the previous week.  Which of the following is a likely diagnosis?

a. Guillain-Barre                  b. Werdnig-Hoffman                          c. Myasthenia gravis                           d. Rhabdomyosarcoma

 

6. A patient presents to the clinic with complaint of weakness, pain, and tenderness.  Laboratory exam reveals elevated creatine kinase levels, and a muscle biopsy reveals lymphocytic infiltration of muscle fibers.  Which of the following diagnoses is likely?

a. Guillain-Barre                  b. Polymyositis                     c. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis                      d. Myasthenia Gravis

 

7. Your nephew Justin has been diagnosed with pseudohypertrophic muscular dystrophy.  Which type of muscular dystrophy is he most likely to have?

a. Duchenne                         b. myotonic                          c. congenital                         d. neurogenic

 

8. Justin has a twin sister, Caroline. Is she likely to succumb to the same condition as Justin?

a. yes                      b. no                       c. maybe                               d. depends on what she eats

 

9. Lexi strained her gastrocnemius muscle while chasing Jeremy around the student center.  What type of injury is this?

a. joint injury                        b. pulled muscle                   c. pulled ligament                d. broken bone

 

10. Fernando comes into the clinic complaining of muscle weakness in his shoulders, soreness, and pain since chopping a cord of wood.  Blood serum studies show normal CBC with normal distribution of WBC.  Serum creatine kinase is elevated but all other blood chemistries are normal.  You decided to do an electromyographic study     .  The results are “asynchronous spontaneous activity” in the right shoulder.  Which is most likely the source of his discomfort?

 

a. myopathic damage                        b. neurogenic damage                        c. myotonia          d. none of these

 
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