BSC1005 Biology General Chapter 6

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Chapter 6: Cell Energy, Transport and Enzymes

1) Many of the enzymes that control a deep-sea firefly squid’s ability to produce light energy from chemical energy are located A) in membranes. B) in the nucleus. C) within chloroplasts. D) outside of cells. E) within mitochondria. 2) The fluid mosaic model describes the plasma membrane as consisting of A) a phospholipid bilayer with embedded carbohydrates. B) two layers of phospholipids with protein sandwiched between them. C) a protein bilayer with embedded phospholipids. D) carbohydrates, proteins, and phospholipids that can drift in the membrane. E) individual proteins and phospholipids that can drift in a phospholipid bilayer. 3) Membrane phospholipids A) have hydrophobic heads that face the center of the membrane and are shielded from water. B) have hydrophilic tails that face outward and are exposed to water. C) often have “kinks” in their tails caused by the presence of a double bond between carbons. D) remain fluid because they are tightly packed against one another. E) form impermeable layers for cells. 4) The cholesterol associated with animal cell membranes A) is attached to membrane proteins and extends into the watery environment surrounding the cell. B) helps to stabilize the cell membrane at body temperature. C) makes the cell membrane fluid at room temperature. D) is an abnormality resulting from a diet high in cholesterol. E) helps solidify the membranes when the room temperature is below freezing. 5) A major function of glycoproteins and glycolipids in the cell membrane is to A) glue cells together to form tissues. B) allow the cells of an embryo to sort themselves into tissues and organs. C) attach the cell membrane to the cytoskeleton. D) help the cell resist swelling. E) help the cell retain its shape. 6) When physicians perform an organ transplant, they choose a donor whose tissues match those of the recipient as closely as possible. Which of the following cell components are being matched? A) plasma membrane phospholipids B) plasma membrane proteins C) cell-surface carbohydrates D) plasma membrane cholesterols E) cytoskeletal elements 7) Most of the functions of a cell membrane are performed by A) glycolipids. B) proteins. C) phospholipids. D) cholesterol. E) nucleotides.

BSC1005 Biology General Chapter 6

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9) Relaying a message from a membrane receptor to a molecule that performs a specific function within a cell is called A) signal transduction. B) inhibition. C) competition. D) self-recognition. E) selective permeability. 10) Plasma membranes are selectively permeable. This means that A) anything can pass into or out of a cell as long as the membrane is intact and the cell is healthy. B) the plasma membrane allows some substances to enter or leave a cell more easily than others. C) glucose cannot enter the cell. D) cholesterol cannot enter the cell. E) plasma membranes must be very thick. 12) Small, nonpolar, hydrophobic molecules such as fatty acids A) easily pass through a membrane’s lipid bilayer. B) very slowly diffuse through a membrane’s lipid bilayer. C) require transport proteins to pass through a membrane’s lipid bilayer. D) are actively transported across cell membranes. E) usually enter the cell via endocytosis. 13) Which characteristic promoted the utilization of lipids as the first cell membrane? A) spontaneous degradation of the intracellular environment B) self-assembly into a simple membrane C) ability to form an impermeable membrane D) formation of a semi-solid membrane E) utilization of the hydrophilic nature of lipids 14) All cells are enclosed by a plasma membrane that is similar in ________ and ________. A) thickness . . . composition B) permeability . . . content C) proteins . . . lipids D) lucidity . . . texture E) structure . . . function 15) Which of the following substances would have the most trouble crossing a biological membrane by diffusing through the lipid bilayer? A) H2O B) O2 C) CO2 D) Na+ E) a small, nonpolar molecule such as butane (C4H10) 16) Oxygen crosses a plasma membrane by A) osmosis. B) phagocytosis. C) active transport. D) pinocytosis. E) passive transport. 17) Which of the following statements regarding diffusion is false? A) Diffusion is a result of the kinetic energy of atoms and molecules. B) Diffusion is driven by concentration gradients.

BSC1005 Biology General Chapter 6

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C) Diffusion requires no input of energy into the system. D) Diffusion occurs when particles spread from areas where they are less concentrated to areas where they are more concentrated. E) Diffusion occurs even after equilibrium is reached and no net change is apparent. 18) Diffusion does not require the cell to expend ATP. Therefore, diffusion is considered a type of A) exocytosis. B) phagocytosis. C) passive transport. D) active transport. E) endocytosis. 19) Osmosis can be defined as A) the diffusion of water. B) the diffusion of nonpolar molecules. C) active transport. D) the diffusion of a solute. E) endocytosis. 20) When two aqueous solutions that differ in solute concentration are placed on either side of a semipermeable membrane and osmosis is allowed to take place, the water will A) exhibit a net movement to the side with lower water concentration. B) exhibit a net movement to the side with higher water concentration. C) exhibit a net movement to the side with lower solute concentration. D) exhibit an equal movement in both directions across the membrane. E) not cross the membrane. 22) Some protozoans have special organelles called contractile vacuoles that continually eliminate excess water from the cell. The presence of these organelles tells you that the environment A) is isotonic to the protozoan. B) is hypotonic to the protozoan. C) is contaminated with pollutants. D) contains a higher concentration of solutes than the protozoan. E) is hypertonic to the protozoan. 23) A cell that neither gains nor loses water when it is immersed in a solution is A) isotonic to its environment. B) hypertonic to its environment. C) hypotonic to its environment. D) metabolically inactive. E) dead. 24) In a hypotonic solution, an animal cell will A) lyse. B) experience turgor. C) neither gain nor lose water. D) shrivel. E) lose water. 26) In the lab, you use a special balloon that is permeable to water but not sucrose to make an “artificial cell.” The balloon is filled with a solution of 20% sucrose and 80% water and is immersed in a beaker containing a solution of 40% sucrose and 60% water. The solution in the balloon is ________ relative to the solution in the beaker. A) isotonic B) hypotonic C) hypertonic

BSC1005 Biology General Chapter 6

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D) hydrophobic E) hydrophilic 28) A plant cell in a hypotonic solution A) is turgid. B) lyses. C) shrivels. D) wilts. E) is flaccid. 30) Facilitated diffusion across a biological membrane requires ________ and moves a substance ________ its concentration gradient. A) energy and transport proteins . . . down B) energy . . . down C) transport proteins . . . down D) energy and transport proteins . . . against E) transport proteins . . . against 31) The molecules responsible for membrane transport are A) steroids. B) ATP. C) phospholipids. D) carbohydrates. E) proteins. 33) Which of the following processes can move a solute against its concentration gradient? A) osmosis B) passive transport C) diffusion D) facilitated diffusion E) active transport 34) Which of the following processes could result in the net movement of a substance into a cell, if the substance is more concentrated in the cell than in the surroundings? A) active transport B) facilitated diffusion C) diffusion D) osmosis E) passive transport. 35) Which of the following is a typical feature of an ATP-driven active transport mechanism? A) The transport protein must cross to the correct side of the membrane before the solute can bind to it. B) The solute must be phosphorylated before it can bind to the transport protein. C) The transport protein is irreversibly phosphorylated as transport takes place. D) The transport protein catalyzes the conversion of ADP to ATP. E) The solute moves against the concentration gradient. 37) Certain cells that line the stomach synthesize a digestive enzyme and secrete it into the stomach. This enzyme is a protein. Which of the following processes could be responsible for its secretion? A) endocytosis B) exocytosis C) diffusion D) pinocytosis E) passive transport

BSC1005 Biology General Chapter 6

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38) The process of a white blood cell engulfing a bacterium is A) osmosis. B) diffusion. C) receptor-mediated endocytosis. D) pinocytosis. E) phagocytosis. 39) Phagocytosis is to eating as pinocytosis is to A) osmosis. B) drinking. C) chewing. D) hydrolysis. E) lysis. 40) Cells acquire LDLs by A) osmosis. B) diffusion. C) receptor-mediated endocytosis. D) pinocytosis. E) phagocytosis. 41) Kinetic energy differs from chemical energy in that A) kinetic energy is stored energy that has the potential to do work, and chemical energy is the energy of movement. B) kinetic energy depends on the movement of atoms, whereas chemical energy depends on the movement of molecules. C) kinetic energy can be converted into various forms of energy, whereas chemical energy can only be converted into heat. D) kinetic energy is the energy of a moving object, whereas chemical energy is the potential energy of molecules. E) chemical energy is a particular form of kinetic energy. 42) Glucose molecules provide energy to power the swimming motion of sperm. In this example, the sperm are changing A) chemical energy into kinetic energy. B) chemical energy into potential energy. C) kinetic energy into potential energy. D) kinetic energy into chemical energy. E) kinetic energy into thermal energy. 43) In the reaction A → B + C + heat, A) there is a net input of energy. B) the potential energy of the products is greater than that of the reactant. C) the potential energy of the products is the same as that of the reactant. D) the potential energy of the products is less than that of the reactant. E) entropy has decreased. 45) According to ________, energy cannot be created or destroyed. A) Aristotle’s first principle B) the first law of thermodynamics C) the second law of thermodynamics D) the third law of thermodynamics E) Einstein’s law of relativity 47) Which of the following energy transfers is impossible in living systems? A) light energy to chemical energy B) chemical energy to kinetic energy C) potential energy to kinetic energy D) light energy to potential energy

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E) heat to light energy. 48) Living systems A) violate the first law of thermodynamics. B) violate the second law of thermodynamics. C) decrease their entropy while increasing the entropy of the universe. D) are examples of a closed system. E) are only compelled to follow the first law of thermodynamics. 49) Which of the following processes is endergonic? A) the burning of wood B) the release of heat from the breakdown of glucose C) the synthesis of glucose from carbon dioxide and water D) the breakdown of glucose E) cellular respiration 50) What is the basic difference between exergonic and endergonic reactions? A) Exergonic reactions involve ionic bonds; endergonic reactions involve covalent bonds. B) Exergonic reactions involve the breaking of bonds; endergonic reactions involve the formation of bonds. C) Exergonic reactions involve the formation of bonds; endergonic reactions involve the breaking of bonds. D) Exergonic reactions release energy; endergonic reactions absorb it. E) In exergonic reactions, the reactants have less chemical energy than the products; in endergonic reactions, the opposite is true. 52) Which of the following examples is classified as a metabolic pathway? A) protein synthesis B) osmosis C) cell lysis D) spontaneous combustions E) passive diffusion 53) When a cell uses chemical energy to perform work, it couples a(n) ________ reaction with a(n) ________ reaction. A) exergonic . . . endergonic B) endergonic . . . exergonic C) exergonic . . . spontaneous D) spontaneous . . . exergonic E) endergonic . . . spontaneous 55) The transfer of a phosphate group to a molecule or compound is called A) carboxylation. B) ionization. C) phosphorylation. D) hydrogen bonding. E) hydrogenation. 56) Anything that prevents ATP formation will most likely A) result in cell death. B) force the cell to rely on lipids for energy. C) result in the conversion of kinetic energy to potential energy. D) force the cell to rely on ADP for energy. E) have no effect on the cell. 57) ATP can be used as the cell’s energy exchange mechanism because A) endergonic reactions can be fueled by coupling them with the formation of ATP from ADP. B) ATP is the most energy-rich small molecule in the cell. C) endergonic reactions can be fueled by coupling them with the hydrolysis of high-energy phosphate bonds in ATP.

BSC1005 Biology General Chapter 6

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D) the regeneration of ATP from ADP can be fueled by coupling it with endergonic reactions. E) ATP is a disposable form of chemical energy, used once and then discarded by the cell. 58) An energy barrier A) is the amount of energy that must be produced by the reactants to start a chemical reaction. B) is higher than the energy of activation of a reaction. C) is lower than the energy of activation of a reaction. D) prevents the spontaneous decomposition of molecules in the cell. E) can only be overcome with the use of enzymes. 59) The energy required to initiate an exergonic reaction is called A) exergonic energy. B) endergonic energy. C) input energy. D) hydrolytic energy. E) the energy of activation. 60) Most of a cell’s enzymes are A) lipids. B) proteins. C) amino acids. D) nucleic acids. E) carbohydrates. 61) When an enzyme catalyzes a reaction, A) it lowers the activation energy of the reaction. B) it raises the activation energy of the reaction. C) it becomes a product. D) it acts as a reactant. E) it is used once and discarded. 62) Substrates bind to an enzyme’s ________ site. A) reactant B) allosteric C) regulatory D) phosphate E) active 63) The active site of an enzyme is A) the region of a substrate that is changed by an enzyme. B) the highly changeable portion of an enzyme that adapts to fit the substrates of various reactions. C) the region of an enzyme that attaches to a substrate. D) the region of a product that detaches from the enzyme. E) the region of the enzyme composed of only a few specific nucleic acids. 67) Heating inactivates enzymes by A) breaking the covalent bonds that hold the molecule together. B) removing phosphate groups from the enzyme. C) causing enzyme molecules to stick together. D) changing the enzyme’s three-dimensional shape. E) inducing the addition of amino acids. 68) Which of the following substances could be a cofactor? A) a protein B) a polypeptide

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C) a zinc atom D) a ribosome E) collagen 69) Which of the following is a coenzyme? A) zinc B) vitamin B6 C) iron D) iodine E) hydrogen ions 70) Which of the following will have no effect on the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction? A) temperature B) pH C) competitive inhibitors D) noncompetitive inhibitors E) net change in energy 71) Inhibition of an enzyme is irreversible when A) a competitive inhibitor is involved. B) a noncompetitive inhibitor is involved. C) the shape of the enzyme is changed. D) covalent bonds form between inhibitor and enzyme. E) weak interactions form between inhibitor and enzyme.

BSC 1005 Chapter 7 Cellular Respiration and Fermentation

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Chapter 7 Cellular Respiration and Fermentation 1) Substrate-level phosphorylation occurs _____.

A) in glycolysis B) in the citric acid cycle C) in both glycolysis and the citric acid cycle D) during oxidative phosphorylation

2) When electrons move closer to a more electronegative atom, what happens? The more electronegative atom

is _____. A) reduced, and energy is released B) reduced, and energy is consumed C) oxidized, and energy is consumed D) oxidized, and energy is released

3) When a glucose molecule loses a hydrogen atom as the result of an oxidation-reduction reaction, the

molecule becomes _____. A) hydrolyzed B) oxidized C) reduced D) an oxidizing agent

4) Which of the following statements about NAD+ is true?

A) NAD+ is reduced to NADH during glycolysis, pyruvate oxidation, and the citric acid cycle. B) NAD+ has more chemical energy than NADH. C) NAD+ can donate electrons for use in oxidative phosphorylation. D) In the absence of NAD+, glycolysis can still function.

5) The oxygen consumed during cellular respiration is involved directly in which process or event?

A) glycolysis B) accepting electrons at the end of the electron transport chain C) the citric acid cycle D) the oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA

6) During which of the following steps is no ATP made–

A) Glycolysis B) Electron transport chain C) Pyruvate oxidation D) Krebs cycle E) ATP is made during all the steps

7) Starting with one molecule of glucose, the energy-containing products of glycolysis are _____.

A) 2 NAD+, 2 pyruvate, and 2 ATP B) 2 NADH, 2 pyruvate, and 2 ATP C) 2 FADH2, 2 pyruvate, and 4 ATP D) 6 CO2, 2 pyruvate, and 2 ATP

8) In glycolysis, for each molecule of glucose oxidized to pyruvate _____.

A) two molecules of ATP are used and two molecules of ATP are produced. B) two molecules of ATP are used and four molecules of ATP are produced. C) four molecules of ATP are used and two molecules of ATP are produced.

BSC 1005 Chapter 7 Cellular Respiration and Fermentation

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D) two molecules of ATP are used and six molecules of ATP are produced. 9) Following glycolysis and the citric acid cycle, but before the electron transport chain and oxidative

phosphorylation, the carbon skeleton of glucose has been broken down to CO2 with some net gain of ATP. Most of the energy from the original glucose molecule at that point in the process, however, is in the form of _____.

A) acetyl-CoA B) glucose C) pyruvate D) NADH

10) The 2 carbons in acetyl–CoA are eventually used to form —

A) Glucose B) ATP C) Pyruvate D) Oxaloacetate E) Carbon dioxide

11) Which electron carrier(s) function in the citric acid cycle?

A) NAD+ only B) NADH and FADH2 C) the electron transport chain D) ADP and ATP

12) All of the glycolysis reactions do not require oxygen and can take place in an anaerobic environment.

A) This is true B) This is false

13) What is the function of the coenzymes, NADH and FADH2 ?

A) Charging electrons to power ATP synthase B) Catalyzing the formation of acetyl-CoA C) Providing electrons and H+ to the electron transport chain D) Transporting CO2 into the mitochondria E) Acting as a terminal electron acceptor

14) The electron transport chain _____.

A) is a series of redox reactions B) is a series of substitution reactions C) is driven by ATP consumption D) takes place in the cytoplasm of prokaryotic cells

15) The chemiosmotic hypothesis is an important concept in our understanding of cellular metabolism in general

because it explains _____. A) how ATP is synthesized by a proton motive force B) how electron transport can fuel substrate-level phosphorylation C) the sequence of the electron transport chain molecules D) the reduction of oxygen to water in the final steps of oxidative metabolism

16) ATP synthase –

A) Is an H+ channel B) Is embedded in the cristae C) Spins due to the flow of H+ D) Uses rotational energy to form ATP

BSC 1005 Chapter 7 Cellular Respiration and Fermentation

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E) All of the above 17) How does substrate level phosphorylation differ from oxidative phosphorylation ?

A) Oxidative makes ADP B) Substrate level requires oxygen C) Oxidative occurs during glycolysis only D) Substrate level uses PO4 from a donor molecule only E) All of the above are correct

18) Where are the proteins of the electron transport chain located?

A) mitochondrial outer membrane B) mitochondrial inner membrane C) mitochondrial intermembrane space D) mitochondrial matrix

19) Energy released by the electron transport chain is used to pump H+ into which location in eukaryotic cells?

A) mitochondrial outer membrane B) mitochondrial inner membrane C) mitochondrial intermembrane space D) mitochondrial matrix

20) When hydrogen ions are pumped from the mitochondrial matrix across the inner membrane and into the

intermembrane space, the result is the _____. A) formation of ATP B) reduction of NAD+ C) creation of a proton-motive force D) lowering of pH in the mitochondrial matrix

21) Approximately how many molecules of ATP are produced from the complete oxidation of one molecule of

glucose (C6H12O6) in aerobic cellular respiration? A) 2 B) 4 C) 18-24 D) 30-32

22) Chemiosmotic ATP synthesis (oxidative phosphorylation) occurs in _____.

A) all cells, but only in the presence of oxygen B) only eukaryotic cells, in the presence of oxygen C) only in mitochondria, using either oxygen or other electron acceptors D) all respiring cells, both prokaryotic and eukaryotic, using either oxygen or other electron

acceptors 23) Alcohol fermentation is an anaerobic process?

A) This is true B) This is false

24) Which of the following occurs in the cytosol of a eukaryotic cell?

A) glycolysis and fermentation B) fermentation and chemiosmosis C) oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA D) citric acid cycle

BSC 1005 Chapter 7 Cellular Respiration and Fermentation

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25) In the absence of oxygen, yeast cells can obtain energy by fermentation, resulting in the production of _____. A) ATP, CO2, and ethanol (ethyl alcohol) B) ATP, CO2, and lactate C) ATP, NADH, and pyruvate D) ATP, pyruvate, and acetyl CoA

26) What do NADH dehydrogenase and cytochrome oxidase have in common?

A) Both pump H+ from the matrix B) Both are powered by electrons C) Both are embedded in the cristae D) Both are transmembrane proteins E) All of the above

27) One function of both alcohol fermentation and lactic acid fermentation is to _____.

A) reduce NAD+ to NADH B) reduce FAD+ to FADH2 C) oxidize NADH to NAD+ D) reduce FADH2 to FAD+

28) An organism is discovered that thrives in both the presence and absence of oxygen in the air. Curiously, the

consumption of sugar increases as oxygen is removed from the organism’s environment, even though the organism does not gain much weight. This organism _____.

A) is a normal eukaryotic organism B) is photosynthetic C) is an anaerobic organism D) is a facultative anaerobe

29) Cyanide inhibits cytochrome oxidase. Why is this lethal?

A) NAD+ can no longer be reduced to NADH B) Electron transport chain is shut down C) Glycolysis is inhibited D) Krebs cycle cannot be initiated E) Pyruvate is not converted to Acetyl-CoA

30) Cyanide inhibits cytochrome oxidase. Why is this lethal?

A) NAD+ can no longer be reduced to NADH B) Electron transport chain is shut down C) Glycolysis is inhibited D) Krebs cycle cannot be initiated E) Pyruvate is not converted to Acetyl-CoA

31) During a heart attack blood flow to the cardiac muscle is restricted. How would this effect cellular respiration?

A) ATP production would be increased B) ATP production would remain unchanged C) ATP production would be decreased D) The cell would switch to alcohol fermentation

32) In E. coli an enzyme, nitrate reductase, is found in the electron transport chain. The enzyme transfers an

electron to nitrate (NO3) instead of oxygen. What type of pathway is this? A) Aerobic respiration B) Anaerobic respiration

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C) Fermentation

BSC1005 Biology General Chapter 8 Photosynthesis

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Chapter 8 Photosynthesis

1) The summary equation for photosynthesis is A) 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + sunlight → C6H12O6 + 6 O2. B) C5H12O6 + 6 O2 + sunlight → 5 CO2 + 6 H2O. C) C6H12O6 + 6 O2 + sunlight → 6 CO2 + 6 H2O. D) the same as the equation for glycolysis written in reverse. E) 6 CH2O + 5 O2 + sunlight → CO2 + 2 H2O. 2) Which of the following statements regarding photosynthesis and carbon dioxide is false? A) Plants require carbon dioxide, water, and sunlight to make glucose. B) Burning fossil fuels release carbon dioxide that was removed from the atmosphere millions of years ago, C) Because of their short growth period and self-regeneration, willows are more viable as a source of potential power than the trees in most natural forests. D) Most of the food humans eat can be traced back to photosynthetic plants. E) Burning wood contributes more to acid rain than burning fossil fuels. 3) What is the name given to organisms that can make their own food and the food for the biosphere? A) chemotrophs B) heterotrophs C) manufacturers D) synthesizers E) producers 4) Photoautotrophs A) make sugar by using organic raw materials. B) produce organic molecules from inorganic molecules. C) eat other organisms that use light energy to make food molecules. D) include only the green plants. E) are only found on land. 5) Which of the following is an example of a photoautotroph? A) cyanobacteria in freshwater and marine ecosystems B) grizzly bears in Alaska C) bacteria in our mouth D) fungi growing in the refrigerator E) mushrooms growing on the side of a dead tree 6) Autotrophs that utilize light as their energy source are A) chemosynthetic autotrophs. B) photoautotrophs. C) consumers. D) fungi. E) heterotrophs. 7) What is the likely origin of chloroplasts? A) mitochondria that had a mutation for photosynthesis B) photosynthetic prokaryotes that lived inside eukaryotic cells C) a combination of mitochondria and Golgi bodies D) prokaryotes with photosynthetic mitochondria E) eukaryotes that engulfed photosynthetic fungi 8) In most green plants, chloroplasts are A) concentrated in a zone of leaf tissue called the mesophyll.

BSC1005 Biology General Chapter 8 Photosynthesis

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B) concentrated in the stomata. C) concentrated in a portion of the leaf called the stroma. D) found throughout the leaf tissue. E) found throughout the plant. 9) ________ cells in leaves are specialized for photosynthesis. A) Companion B) Mesophyll C) Sclerenchyma D) Tracheid E) Collenchyma 10) CO2 enters and O2 escapes from a leaf via A) stomata. B) thylakoids. C) grana. D) stroma. E) central vacuoles. 11) In the chloroplast, sugars are made in a compartment that is filled with a thick fluid called the A) stomata. B) thylakoid. C) matrix. D) stroma. E) mesophyll. 12) Chloroplasts contain disklike membranous sacs arranged in stacks called A) cristae. B) thylakoids. C) grana. D) vacuoles. E) stroma. 13) Where is chlorophyll found in a plant cell? A) stroma B) thylakoid membranes C) matrix D) cytoplasm E) cristae 14) The oxygen released into the air as a product of photosynthesis comes from A) water. B) glucose. C) carbon dioxide. D) chlorophyll. E) mitochondria. 15) Which of the following molecules is both a reactant and a product of photosynthesis? A) H2O B) glucose C) O2 D) CO2 E) chlorophyll

BSC1005 Biology General Chapter 8 Photosynthesis

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16) If you expose a photosynthesizing plant to water that contains both radioactive H and radioactive O, in which of the products of photosynthesis will the radioactive H and O show up? A) H and O both in glucose B) H in glucose; O in water C) H in water; O in glucose D) H in glucose and water; O in O2 E) H in glucose and water; O in water and O2 17) A redox reaction involves the transfer of A) a hydrogen ion. B) oxygen. C) water. D) an electron. E) carbon dioxide. 18) Which of the following statements concerning the role of redox reactions in photosynthesis and cellular respiration is true? A) Photosynthesis involves only reductions, while respiration involves only oxidations. B) Photosynthesis involves only oxidations, while respiration involves only reductions. C) In photosynthesis, carbon dioxide is oxidized to form sugar, while in respiration, sugar is reduced to form carbon dioxide. D) In photosynthesis, carbon dioxide is reduced to form sugar, while in respiration, sugar is oxidized to form carbon dioxide. E) Photosynthesis involves both reduction and oxidation, while respiration involves only oxidation. 19) What is the source of energy that provides the boost for electrons during photosynthesis? A) light B) electromagnetism C) cellular respiration D) ATP E) glucose 20) Which of the following statements regarding photosynthesis is false? A) ATP is not produced during photosynthesis, but only during respiration. B) Photosynthesis is ultimately powered by light energy and respiration by the chemical energy of fuel molecules. C) Photosynthesis consumes CO2; respiration consumes O2. D) Photosynthesis produces O2; respiration produces CO2. E) The principal electron carrier in photosynthesis is NADPH; the principal electron carrier in respiration is NADH. 21) The light reactions occur in the ________, while the Calvin cycle occurs in the ________. A) stroma . . . thylakoid membranes B) stroma . . . nucleus C) cytoplasm . . . stroma D) cytoplasm . . . thylakoid membrane E) thylakoid membranes . . . stroma 22) Which of the following are produced during the light reactions of photosynthesis? A) glucose, ADP, NADP+

B) glucose, ADP, NADP+, CO2 C) ADP, NADP+, O2 D) ATP, NADPH, O2 E) ATP, NADPH, CO2 23) Which of the following is part of the light reaction?

BSC1005 Biology General Chapter 8 Photosynthesis

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A) carbon fixation B) reduction of carbon C) addition of electrons and protons to carbon D) regeneration of NADP+ E) formation of waste products in the form of O2 24) Which of the following are produced during the Calvin cycle? A) glucose, ADP, NADP+

B) glucose, ADP, NADP+, CO2 C) ADP, NADP+, O2 D) ATP, NADPH, O2 E) ATP, NADPH, CO2 25) Carbon fixation A) occurs when carbon and oxygen from CO2 are incorporated into an organic molecule. B) powers the process of glucose synthesis by supplying the cell with ATP. C) occurs during the light reactions. D) provides the cell with a supply of NADPH molecules. E) uses noncyclic electron flow to capture energy in glucose. 26) Sunlight is a type of ________ energy. A) electromagnetic B) potential C) stored D) kinetic E) nuclear 27) The full range of electromagnetic energy is called the ________ spectrum. A) wavelength B) visible C) electromagnetic D) energy E) ultraviolet 28) Why are most plants green? A) Chlorophyll a reflects green light. B) Chlorophyll a absorbs green light. C) Chlorophyll b primarily uses green light as the source of energy for photosynthesis. D) Green helps plants blend into their environment as a sort of camouflage. E) All photosynthetic pigments are colored green. 29) Which of the following colors contributes the least energy to photosynthesis? A) blue B) red C) violet D) orange E) green 30) Of the following wavelengths of light, which would you expect to be reflected or transmitted by chlorophyll a? A) blue B) green C) yellow

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D) orange E) red 31) Chlorophyll b and carotenoids A) are best at absorbing the energy of green light. B) are found at the reaction center. C) are located on the inner membrane of the chloroplast. D) pass absorbed energy to chlorophyll a. E) catalyze the incorporation of carbon atoms into RuBP. 32) Plant cells are protected from the harmful effects of oxygen radicals with A) NADPH. B) mitochondria. C) chlorophyll. D) carotenoids. E) ATP. 33) A packet of light energy is called a A) quantum. B) pigment. C) photon. D) phaser. E) wavelength. 34) Which of the following statements about the absorption of photons by pigment molecules is true? A) It takes several minutes for the pigment electrons to become excited. B) Photons raise electrons in pigments to the ground state. C) Pigments only lose energy in the excitation process. D) Excitation of the electrons is a very stable state. E) The release of energy by the excited electron can be as heat, light, or fluorescence. 35) Which of the following photosynthetic pigments can be found at the photosystem reaction center? A) chlorophyll b B) chlorophyll a C) a carotenoid D) phycocyanin E) eosinophyll 36) Which of the following is a normal process of photosynthesis that could not occur if all reaction centers were inactivated by a toxin? A) donation of excited electrons by chlorophyll a to a primary electron acceptor B) donation of excited electrons by chlorophyll b to a primary electron acceptor C) absorption of photons by chlorophyll b D) reduction of chlorophyll b by a primary electron acceptor E) absorption of photons by carotenoids 37) How do the reaction centers of photosystem I and II differ? A) Chlorophyll a is found in photosystem I and chlorophyll b in photosystem II. B) Each preferentially absorbs slightly different wavelengths of light. C) Photosystem I functions first in the sequence of steps that make up the light reactions. D) Only photosystem I is found in the thylakoid membranes. E) Photosystem II does not transfer electrons from photons. 38) Clusters of light-gathering pigments in a photosystem A) pass energy to the reaction center.

BSC1005 Biology General Chapter 8 Photosynthesis

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B) are found in the roots of plants. C) absorb electrons. D) do not absorb photons. E) break down H2O. 39) In a photosystem, clusters of chlorophyll a, chlorophyll b, and carotenoid pigments function most like A) an electrical generator. B) an antenna. C) a propeller on a motorboat. D) a windmill. E) a spring. 40) The energy that excites P680 and P700 is supplied by A) electrons passing down the electron transport chain. B) the breaking of glucose bonds. C) ATP. D) photons. E) NADPH. 41) The electron transport chains of the light reactions A) are located in the stroma. B) are very different from those of cellular respiration. C) shuttle electrons along in a series of redox reactions. D) provide energy for the Krebs cycle. E) are found on the inner membrane of chloroplasts. 42) As a result of the cascade of electrons down the electron transport chains of the light reactions, A) NADPH is reduced to NADP+. B) NADPH is oxidized to NADP+. C) NADP+ is reduced to NADPH. D) NADP+ is oxidized to NADPH. E) water is formed. 43) The electrons lost from the reaction center of photosystem I are replaced by electrons from A) CO2. B) ATP. C) H2O. D) the top of the electron transport chain. E) the bottom of the electron transport chain. 44) The electrons lost from the reaction center of photosystem II are replaced by electrons from A) CO2. B) ATP. C) H2O. D) NADPH. E) photosystem I. 45) Photosystem II A) has P700 at its reaction center. B) is reduced by NADPH. C) passes electrons to photosystem I. D) does not have a reaction center. E) releases CO2 as a by-product.

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46) Photophosphorylation differs from oxidative phosphorylation in that A) it involves an electron transport chain. B) energy is stored in the form of a proton concentration difference. C) regeneration of ATP is driven by a flow of protons through an ATP synthase. D) the final electron acceptor is NADP+ and not oxygen. E) its enzymes are membrane-bound. 47) In photophosphorylation, energy from electron flow is used to transport ________ from the ________ to the thylakoid compartment, generating a concentration gradient of ________. A) electrons . . . grana . . . H+

B) H+ . . . grana . . . electrons C) H+ . . . stroma . . . H+

D) electrons . . . stroma . . . H+

E) H+ . . . stroma . . . ATP 48) A concentration gradient is a form of A) kinetic energy. B) life. C) an exergonic reaction. D) potential energy. E) entropy. 49) The chloroplast ATP synthase A) is a nucleic acid complex. B) transports H+ ions from the stroma to the thylakoid space. C) couples the flow of H+ to the phosphorylation of NADP+. D) is embedded in the inner membrane of the chloroplast. E) helps transport H+ against the concentration gradient. 50) In photosynthesis, the chemiosmotic production of ATP A) requires oxygen. B) is analogous to the production of ATP in mitochondria. C) is done by the Calvin cycle. D) requires the input of NADPH. E) is a result of the oxidation of glucose. 51) Mitochondria transfer ________ energy from ________ to ATP; chloroplasts transform ________ energy into the chemical energy of ATP. A) chemical . . . food . . . light B) food . . . light . . . chemical C) light . . . food . . . kinetic D) nuclear . . . light . . . food E) food . . . light . . . nuclear 52) Photosynthetic organisms derive their carbon from A) carbon monoxide. B) carbon dioxide. C) hydrocarbons. D) methane. E) ribose.

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53) ATP and NADPH A) play a role in glucose synthesis by plants. B) are products of the Calvin cycle. C) are inputs to the photosystems. D) production is associated with events taking place on the inner mitochondrial membrane. E) are used in the electron transport chain to pump H+ into the thylakoid space. 54) To produce one glucose, the Calvin cycle needs to be run through ________ time(s). A) one B) two C) four D) six E) eight 55) The Calvin cycle constructs ________, an energy-rich molecule that a plant cell can then use to make glucose or other organic molecules. A) G3P B) ATP C) NADH D) NADPH E) carbon dioxide 56) The ultimate source of all the food we eat and the oxygen we breathe is A) cellular respiration. B) chemiosmosis. C) photosynthesis. D) glycolysis. E) anaerobic metabolism. 57) Plants use sugars as A) a fuel for photophosphorylation. B) a fuel for photosynthesis. C) a starting material for the Calvin cycle. D) a source of electrons for chemiosmosis. E) a fuel for cellular respiration and a starting material for making other organic molecules. 58) Plant cells A) lack mitochondria and chloroplasts. B) lack mitochondria but have chloroplasts. C) have mitochondria but do not have chloroplasts. D) have mitochondria and chloroplasts. E) have chloroplasts and vestigial mitochondria.

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59)

In this drawing of a chloroplast, which structure represents the thylakoid membrane? A) structure A B) structure B C) structure C D) structure D E) structure E 60)

According to this figure, how do H+ ions make their way from the stroma to the thylakoid interior? A) through photosystem I B) through photosystem II C) through an electron transport chain molecule D) through the ATP synthase E) directly through the phospholipids of the thylakoid membrane

BSC1005 Biology General Chapter 9 The Cellular Basis of Reproduction and Inheritance

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Chapter 9: The Cellular Division, Mitosis and Meiosis

1) The creation of offspring carrying genetic information from a single parent is called A) asexual reproduction. B) sexual reproduction. C) a life cycle. D) regeneration. E) spontaneous generation. 2) Which of the following statements regarding sexual and asexual reproduction is true? A) Cell division only occurs after sexual reproduction. B) Only offspring from asexual reproduction inherit traits from two parents. C) Sexual reproduction typically includes the development of unfertilized eggs. D) Sexual reproduction is more likely to increase genetic variation than is asexual reproduction. E) Only asexual reproduction results from the union of a sperm and an egg. 3) Strictly speaking, the phrase “like begets like” refers to A) all forms of reproduction. B) sexual reproduction only. C) asexual reproduction only. D) production of gametes from a premeiotic cell. E) sexual reproduction between different species. 4) Asexual reproduction requires ________ individual(s). A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4 5) With the exception of identical twins, siblings who have the same two biological parents are likely to look similar, but not identical, to each other because they have A) identical chromosomes, but different genes. B) identical genes but different chromosomes. C) the same combination of traits, but different genes. D) only a 20% chance of sharing the same combination of genes. E) a similar but not identical combination of genes. 6) Virchow’s principle, stated formally in 1858, was that A) animals must always reproduce. B) photosynthesis is the center of all life. C) animals must develop. D) every cell comes from a cell. E) all life evolves. 7) Which of the following statements regarding cell division is false? A) Cell division can reproduce an entire organism. B) Cell division is necessary for development to occur. C) Cell division ensures the continuity of life from generation to generation. D) Cell division is the basis of both sexual and asexual reproduction. E) Cell division is common in eukaryotes but rare in prokaryotes.

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8) Which of the following statements regarding prokaryotes is false? A) Prokaryotic chromosomes are more complex than those of eukaryotes. B) Most prokaryotes reproduce by binary fission. C) Prokaryotic cells are generally smaller and simpler than eukaryotic cells. D) In prokaryotes, daughter chromosomes are separated by an active movement away from each other and the growth of a new plasma membrane between them. E) Daughter prokaryotic chromosomes are separated by some sort of active movement away from each other and the growth of new plasma membrane between them. 9) Eukaryotic chromosomes differ from prokaryotic chromosomes in that they A) are simpler. B) are circular in structure. C) include fewer proteins. D) are copied immediately after cell division. E) are housed in a membrane-enclosed nucleus. 10) Which of the following helps maintain the structure of chromosomes and control the activity of genes? A) the nuclear membrane B) proteins C) centromeres D) ribosomes E) lipids 11) Sister chromatids are A) found right after a cell divides. B) tightly linked together at a centromere. C) formed when chromatids separate during cell division. D) made only of DNA. E) unique to prokaryotes. 12) Prior to mitosis, each chromosome of a eukaryotic cell consists of a pair of identical structures called A) chromatin. B) sister chromosomes. C) DNA transcripts. D) nucleoli. E) sister chromatids. 13) Eukaryotic cells spend most of their cell cycle in which phase? A) interphase B) prophase C) metaphase D) anaphase E) telophase 14) Which of the following occurs during interphase? A) a reduction in the size of the nuclear membrane B) duplication of the chromosomes C) cytokinesis D) cell growth and duplication of the chromosomes E) separation of newly formed DNA to opposite ends of the cell 15) The genetic material is duplicated during A) the mitotic phase. B) G1. C) the S phase.

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D) G2. E) mitosis. 16) If the S phase were eliminated from the cell cycle, the daughter cells would A) have half the genetic material found in the parent cell. B) be genetically identical to each other. C) be genetically identical to the parent cell. D) synthesize the missing genetic material on their own. E) continue to function without the normal amount of DNA. 17) The process by which the cytoplasm of a eukaryotic cell divides to produce two cells is called A) mitosis. B) cytokinesis. C) binary fission. D) telophase. E) spindle formation. 18) Looking into your microscope, you spot an unusual cell. Instead of the typical rounded cell shape, the cell has a very narrow middle separating two bulging ends. It sort of looks like the number 8! Then you realize that this cell is A) undergoing cytokinesis. B) in the S phase of interphase. C) in the G1 phase of interphase. D) in the G2 phase of interphase. E) about to undergo mitosis. 19) The phase of mitosis during which the nuclear envelope fragments and the nucleoli disappear is called A) interphase. B) prophase. C) metaphase. D) anaphase. E) telophase. 20) During which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes line up on a plane equidistant from the two spindle poles? A) interphase B) prophase C) metaphase D) anaphase E) telophase 21) At the start of mitotic anaphase, A) the centromeres of each chromosome come apart. B) sister chromatids separate. C) the chromatid DNA replicates. D) daughter chromosomes begin to move toward opposite poles of the cell. E) equivalent and complete collections of chromosomes have reached the two poles. 22) During which phase of mitosis does the nuclear envelope re-form and the nucleoli reappear? A) anaphase B) metaphase C) prophase D) interphase E) telophase 23) Which of the following is a feature of plant cell division that distinguishes it from animal cell division? A) formation of a cell plate

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B) formation of a cleavage furrow C) lack of cytokinesis D) production of four (rather than two) new cells per mitotic division E) disappearance and subsequent reappearance of the nucleolus 24) Which of the following features likely accounts for the difference between plant and animal cell cytokinesis? A) Animal cells lack the microfilaments required for forming a cleavage furrow. B) Animal cells lack chloroplasts. C) Plant cell division must maintain the integrity of the cell wall. D) Plant cells have two sets of chromosomes; animal cells have one set of chromosomes. E) Plant and animal cells do not have a common ancestor. 25) Which of the following must occur for a plant or animal to grow and develop normally? A) The organism must receive a supply of the appropriate hormones from its parents. B) The organism must be able to control the timing and rate of cell division in different parts of its body. C) Sufficient light must be available to stimulate cell division. D) Sufficient oxygen must be available to stimulate cell division. E) Dividing cells must be freed from attachment sites. 26) When animal cells are grown in a petri dish, they typically stop dividing once they have formed a single, unbroken layer on the bottom of the dish. This arrest of division is an example of A) cancer. B) cell constraint. C) density-dependent inhibition. D) cell division repression. E) growth factor desensitization. 27) As a patch of scraped skin heals, the cells fill in the injured area but do not grow beyond that. This is an example of A) density-independent inhibition. B) density-dependent inhibition. C) anchorage independence. D) growth factor inhibition. E) anchorage-dependent inhibition. 28) Which of the following is probably the main factor responsible for the phenomenon of density-dependent inhibition? A) a local accumulation of growth-inhibiting factors B) availability of growth factors C) cells’ innate ability to “sense” when the organ of which they are a part has no need for additional cells D) a local deficiency of nutrients E) physical contact of cell-surface proteins between adjacent cells 29) Mature human nerve cells and muscle cells A) remain undifferentiated unless an injury occurs. B) become cancerous more easily than other cell types. C) continue to divide throughout their lifetime. D) are permanently in a state of nondivision. E) cease dividing after a predetermined number of cell generations. 30) Which of the following statements regarding the cell-cycle control system is false? A) The cell-cycle control system receives messages from outside the cell that influence cell division. B) The cell-cycle control system triggers and controls major events in the cell cycle. C) The cell-cycle control system is influenced by growth factors that bind to cell receptors. D) The cell-cycle control system includes three key checkpoints to complete a cell cycle. E) The cell-cycle control system operates independently of the growth factors.

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31) The cell cycle control system is most like A) a row of dominoes falling down, each one triggering the fall of the next. B) the control device of an automatic washing machine. C) an orchestra directed by a conductor. D) a light switch turning on a set of room lights. E) a video game controller. 32) You are asked to culture an unidentified sample of animal tissue. You notice that the cells seem to fail to exhibit density- dependent inhibition. The source of this tissue sample is most likely A) a scar. B) a cancer. C) skin. D) a fetal liver. E) the sperm-producing tissue of the testis 33) A benign tumor differs from a malignant tumor in that a benign tumor A) is cancerous. B) spreads from the original site. C) does not metastasize. D) never causes health problems. E) can only arise in the brain, whereas a malignant tumor can arise anywhere in the body. 34) Which of the following shows the greatest promise as a cancer chemotherapy agent? A) a drug that causes cells to divide at a right angle from their usual orientation B) a drug that interferes with cellular respiration C) a drug that prevents sister chromatids from separating at anaphase D) a drug that prevents crossing over E) a drug that prevents tetrad formation 35) Which of the following statements regarding the function of mitosis is false? A) Mitosis allows organisms to grow. B) Mitosis allows organisms to generate genetic diversity. C) Mitosis allows organisms to reproduce asexually. D) Mitosis allows organisms to repair tissues. E) Mitosis allows organisms to regenerate lost parts. 36) Two chromosomes in a nucleus that carry loci for the same traits in the same positions on the chromosome but specify different versions of some traits constitute a pair of A) homologous chromosomes. B) heterologous chromosomes. C) complementary chromosomes. D) polyploid chromosomes. E) parallel chromosomes. 37) A pair of male human sex chromosomes is most like A) a pair of blue jeans. B) a bride and groom. C) a knife, fork, and spoon. D) identical twins. E) the letters of the alphabet. 38) Which of the following statements regarding mitosis and meiosis is false? A) Meiosis only occurs in the ovaries and testes. B) All sexual life cycles involve an alternation of diploid and haploid stages. C) Mitosis produces daughter cells with half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell.

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D) A normal human zygote has 46 chromosomes. E) A haploid cell has half the chromosomes of a diploid cell. 39) Which of the following statements is false? A) A typical body cell is called a somatic cell. B) Gametes are haploid cells. C) Somatic cells are diploid. D) Gametes are made by mitosis. E) A zygote is a fertilized egg 40) During which stage of meiosis does synapsis and the formation of tetrads occur? A) interphase I B) prophase I C) interphase II D) prophase II E) metaphase I 41) Which of the following options correctly describes the behavior of a tetrad during anaphase I of meiosis? A) It goes intact to one pole of the dividing cell. B) It splits into two pairs of sister chromatids, and one pair goes to each pole of the dividing cell. C) It splits into two pairs of homologous, nonsister chromatids, and one pair goes to each pole of the dividing cell. D) It splits into four chromosomes, which distribute in random pairs to the two poles of the dividing cell. E) It splits into four chromosomes, which distribute in sister-chromosome pairs to the two poles of the dividing cell. 42) Which of the following statements regarding the differences between mitosis and meiosis is false? A) In meiosis four daughter cells are produced, whereas in mitosis two daughter cells are produced. B) Cells produced by mitosis are diploid, whereas cells produced by meiosis are haploid. C) In mitosis cytokinesis occurs once, whereas in meiosis cytokinesis occurs twice. D) Crossing over is a phenomenon that creates genetic diversity during mitosis. E) Mitosis, but not meiosis, occurs in somatic cells. 43) Which of the following statements regarding mitosis and meiosis is false? A) Mitosis provides for growth and tissue repair. B) Meiosis provides for asexual reproduction. C) In mitosis, the chromosomes replicate only once in the preceding interphase. D) In meiosis, the chromosomes replicate only once in the preceding interphase. E) All the events unique to meiosis occur during meiosis I 44) Both mitosis and meiosis are preceded by A) prometaphase. B) interphase. C) prophase. D) telophase. E) anaphase 45) Independent orientation of chromosomes at metaphase I and random fertilization are most like A) shuffling cards and dealing out hands of poker. B) cutting up a pie into eight even-sized slices. C) alphabetizing files in a filing cabinet. D) pairing up similar socks after washing your clothes. E) stringing beads onto a string to make a necklace

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46) Independent orientation of chromosomes at metaphase I results in an increase in the number of A) gametes. B) homologous chromosomes. C) possible combinations of characteristics. D) sex chromosomes. E) points of crossing over. 48) Karyotyping A) shows chromosomes as they appear in metaphase of meiosis II. B) can reveal alterations in chromosome number. C) examines points of crossing over. D) reveals the results of independent orientation of chromosomes during meiosis I. E) reveals the presence of cancerous genes. 49) A karyotype is most like A) a map showing the hidden location of buried treasure. B) a movie showing the stages of the reproductive cycle of a beetle. C) a necklace formed by stringing beads onto a string. D) photographs of every couple at a high school prom. E) the answer key to a multiple-choice exam. 50) Which of the following statements regarding Down syndrome is false? A) Trisomy 21 usually leads to Down syndrome. B) A human embryo with an abnormal number of chromosomes is usually spontaneously aborted. C) Down syndrome is the most common serious birth defect in the United States. D) People with Down syndrome usually have a life span much shorter than normal. E) Women with Down syndrome cannot reproduce. 57) Cancer is not usually inherited because A) the chromosomal changes in cancer are usually confined to somatic cells. B) people with cancer usually die before reproducing. C) cancer typically causes disruptions of meiosis. D) the causes of cancer are not usually genetic. E) the cancerous cells usually interfere with the ability to produce gametes.