EV 551 Hazardous Materials Assessment – Summer2020 Homework 1 – 40 points
1. Which of the following is not a part of the HAZWOPER process:
a. Recognition of hazards
b. Evaluation of hazards
c. Control of hazards
d. Information gathering
e. Safety from hazards
f. All are part of the process
2. Hazardous waste site workers must:
a. Receive 40-hour OSHA 1910.120 training plus 24 hours of field supervision if exposed over the PEL
b. Receive 40-hour training plus 8 hours field supervision if exposed below the PEL and when respirators are not required
c. 8-hour annual refresher training
d. All of the above
3. First Responder Operations level training allows persons to:
a. Witness or discover a release
b. Perform defensive actions
c. Stop the release
d. A and B are true
e. All of the above
4. Recognition of hazards includes:
a. Identifying the materials involved in the release
b. Identifying the degree of hazards present
c. Provide the level of protection needed for site workers
d. A and B are correct
e. All of the above
5. The most important response activity at a hazardous waste work site is:
a. Evaluation of hazards
b. Control of hazards
c. Recognition of hazards
d. Safety precautions
6. Frequent hazard types found at response sites include:
a. Physical hazards
b. Biological hazards
c. Chemical hazards
d. Mechanical hazards
e. All of the above
7. The purpose of initial control activities is to:
a. Immediately assess clean up alternatives
b. Provide time to responders to address long-term hazards
c. Slowly size up response activities
d. Both A and B are correct
e. None of the above
8. Spill reporting is covered by which of these federal regulations:
a. Superfund
b. DOT
c. RCRA
d. Clean Water Act
e. A, B, and D are correct
9. The effects of toxic materials on the human body are determined by:
a. Routes of exposure
b. Dose
c. Duration and frequency of exposure
d. All of the above
10. What are the four major pathways that chemical substances can enter the body?
a. ___________________________________________________
b. ___________________________________________________
c. ___________________________________________________
d. ___________________________________________________
11. What is the primary route of exposure to hazardous waste site workers or incident
responders?
a. Ingestion
b. Dermal absorption
c. Inhalation
d. Both a and b are correct
12. Dermal absorption may occur with which form(s) of a chemical:
a. Solid
b. Liquid
c. Aerosol
d. Mist
e. All of the above
13. The dose-response curve illustrates:
a. The indirect relationship between dose and response
b. The direct relationship between dose and response
c. The average number of affected individuals
d. None of the above
14. For most chemicals, a low dose does that does not show an appreciable hazard to exposed individuals is called the:
a. LOAEL
b. NOAEL
c. IDLH
d. Sensitivity
15. If multiple chemicals are present in a work zone, the threshold level:
a. Is based on the most hazardous chemical present
b. Is based on the susceptibility of the exposed population
c. Can not be accurately determined
d. Is based on laboratory experiments
16. Potentiation effects is defined as:
a. The combined effects of two chemicals equals the effects of each acting alone
b. The combined effect of two chemicals has an effect greater than the sum of the two individual chemicals
c. One chemical is usually not toxic by itself, but it increases the toxicity of the second chemical
d. None of the above
17. A PEL is:
a. Permitted educational limits
b. Permissible exposure limits
c. Without regulatory authority
d. A toxicity rating based on the concentration needed to cause death in 50% of exposed persons
e. B and C are correct
18. The federal agency responsible for determining PEL values is:
a. ACGIH
b. NIOSH
c. OSHA
d. EPA
19. The OSHA PEL-C value defines a limit that:
a. May be exceeded for a 15-minute exposure time
b. Requires a one-hour interval with no exposure
c. May be used as a peak exposure limit over an 8-hour workday
d. May never be exceeded during the workday
20. Ionizing radiation consists of the following:
a. Alpha particles
b. Beta particles
c. Gamma rays
d. Microwaves
e. Only A, B, and C are correct
21. Gamma radiation can:
a. Pass through PPE
b. Easily penetrate the body and be scattered and absorbed
c. Travel long distances
d. All of the above
e. Only A and C are correct
22. The greatest allies an individual has available for protection against ionizing radiation
include:
a. Time
b. Distance
c. Shielding
d. All of the above
23. For a chemical to be flammable, it must:
a. Be in a concentration above the UFL
b. Have a proper fuel-to-air ratio for combustion
c. Be found at a concentration below the LFL
d. All of the above
24. A reactive hazard that undergoes reaction may cause:
a. An increase in pressure
b. An increase in heat production
c. An increase in chemical vapor production
d. All of the above
e. Only A and C are correct
25. Corrosive hazards are difficult to control because they:
a. Cause structural damage to skin and containers
b. Only act as irritants
c. Act as oxidizers
d. All of the above
e. Both A and C are correct
26. Irritants are solids, liquids or gases that:
a. Must have direct contact with tissues to cause an effect
b. Impair judgment processes in exposed individuals
c. Increases fluid levels within affected tissues
d. None of the above
27. The physical and chemical properties of a hazardous material determine:
a. Environmental movement
b. Environmental behavior
c. Degree of hazard
d. All of the above
e. Both B and C are correct
28. A material with a specific gravity greater than 1 will:
a. Float on water
b. Dissolve in water
c. Sink in water
d. Not enter groundwater
29. A material, such as chlorine, has a vapor density greater than 1. This material will:
a. Rise into the air
b. Rapidly disperse in ambient air
c. Settle in low points of the topography
d. Increase the pressure of the atmosphere
30. Physical hazards are of concern to response workers because they:
a. Encounter conditions that are out of their control
b. Increase the potential for accidents
c. Decrease the need for PPE
d. Both A and B are correct
e. All of the above
31. Personal protective equipment decreases accident potential by:
a. Increasing movement
b. Increasing visibility
c. Reducing heat stress
d. Both A and B are correct
e. None of the above
32. Excavation and trenching operations offer special problems to hazardous site
workers. Safety requirements for these operations include:
a. Shoring and sloping activities
b. Placement of tools within 2 feet of the edge for accountability and access
c. Covering materials to keep rain out
d. All of the above
33. Heat stress hazards result in an alteration in internal body temperature. Cooling
mechanisms include:
a. Blood flow changes
b. Perspiration
c. PPE
d. Both A and B are correct
e. None of the above
34. Noise hazards may cause injury by:
a. Interfering with communication
b. Increasing stress levels
c. Causing short-term, long-term or permanent hearing loss
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
35. Basic types of noise exposure that can be found at a hazardous work site include:
a. Impact noise
b. Intermittent noise
c. Continuous noise
d. Both A and B are correct
e. All of the above
36. If A ____ dBA level is exceeded, a Hearing Conservation Program must be
established.
a. 80
b. 85
c. 90
d. 140
37. No individual at a work or response site may be exposed to a sound level above ____
dBA without ear protection.
a. 120
b. 100
c. 140
d. 130
38. Individuals are exposed to various sound levels during the workday, therefore, a
combined exposure level must be calculated for site personnel. If the Total Exposure
value exceeds ____, the allowable daily noise level has been exceeded.
a. .1
b. 1
c. 10
d. None of the above
39. Biological hazards at a hazardous waste site do not include:
a. Viral contaminants
b. Fungal growths
c. Allergic reactions
d. Snake bites
e. None of the above
40. NIOSH determines exposure limit values for:
a. Inorganic contaminants only
b. 10-hour workdays, 50-hour work weeks
c. 10-hour workdays, 80-hour work weeks
d. IDLH environments
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