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Name____________________________
Date_____________________________
Exam 3 Biology 1307
1. True or False. All protists are eukaryotic.
A. true
B. false
2. Chloroplasts arose via _____.
A. endosymbiosis of dinoflagellates
B. endosymbiosis of cyanobacteria
C. endosymbiosis of fungi
D. endosymbiosis of euglenids
3. According to the endosymbiosis theory, how many membranes should a mitochondrion have?
A. One
B. Three
C. Two
D. Zero
4. You are given an unknown organism to identify. It is unicellular and heterotrophic. It is motile, using many short extensions of the cytoplasm. It has well-developed organelles and two nuclei, one large and one small. This organism is most likely to be a ________.
A. foraminiferan
B. diatom
C. ciliate
D. dinoflagellate
E. slime mold
5. Which of the following statements is consistent with the assertion that protists are paraphyletic?
A. There is no common set of synapomorphies that define a protist
B. Protists all share a common set of synapomorphies.
C. Protists are all more primitive than land plants and animals.
D. Protists do not share a single common ancestor.
6. Encouraging the growth (via nutrient fertilization) of photosynthetic protists in marine environments may help reduce global warming because _____.
A. the increased oxygen consumption by large populations of photosynthetic protists will increase photosynthesis in land plants
B. photosynthetic protists are primary consumers in many marine food chains
C. photosynthetic protists fix atmospheric carbon dioxide, decreasing atmospheric carbon dioxide levels
7. Encouraging the growth (via nutrient fertilization) of photosynthetic protists in marine environments may help reduce global warming because ________.
A) photosynthetic protists are primary consumers in many marine food chains
B) photosynthetic protists fix atmospheric carbon dioxide, decreasing atmospheric carbon
dioxide levels
C) the increased oxygen consumption by large populations of photosynthetic protists will increase photosynthesis in land plants
D) photosynthetic protists would release a lot of oxygen, and fertilizing them would increase levels of oxygen in the atmosphere
8. Which of these taxa contains species that produce potent toxins that can cause extensive fish kills, contaminate shellfish, and poison humans?
A. red algae
B. dinoflagellates
C. diplomonads
D. euglenids
9. Which of the following might be a result of adding a secondary consumer to the aquatic ecosystem in the accompanying illustration?
A. a decrease in the number of primary consumers
B. a decrease in the population of decomposers
C. an increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide
D. an increase in the population of scavengers
E. a decrease in the carbon sink
10. The Irish potato famine was caused by an organism that belongs to which species?
A. Phytophtora infestans
B. Trichomonas vaginalis
C. Giardia spp.
D. Trypanozoma cruzi
11. Which of the following eukaryotic lineages contains species that all lack functioning mitochondria?
A. Excavata
B. Rhizaria
C. Amoebozoa
D. Stramenopila
12. Pseudopods that can perform phagocytosis and have the ability to change their shape are generally characteristic of which group?
A. radiolarians
B. amoebas
C. slime molds
D. oomycetes
13. Which of the following is a synapomorphy that defines all green algae and land plants?
A. Seeds B. Vascular tissue C. Cell walls D, Photosynthetic chloroplasts
14. One of the fish in your aquarium dies. Adding which protist to the water would allow you to avoid flushing the dead fish by speeding its decay?
A. an apicomplexan
B. a dinoflagellata
C. a water mold
D. a ciliate
E. a euglenid
15. According to the endosymbiotic theory, why was it adaptive for the larger (host) cell to keep the engulfed cell alive, rather than digesting it as food?
A. The engulfed cell provided the host cell with adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
B. The engulfed cell provided the host cell with carbon dioxide.
C. The engulfed cell allowed the host cell to metabolize glucose.
D. The host cell was able to survive anaerobic conditions with the engulfed cell alive.
E. The host cell would have been poisoned if it had digested the engulfed cell.
16. Alternation of generations occurs in some protists. Which of the following represents the correct sequence of events for this mode of reproduction?
A. gametophyte → gamete → fusion → sporophyte → spore → gametophyte
B. sporophyte → spore fusion → gametophyte → gamete → sporophyte
C. gametophyte → fusion → sporophyte → spore → gamete → gametophyte
D. gamete → fusion → gametophyte →spore → sporophyte → gamete
17. In examining a protist, you notice that it lacks a cell wall, and has movement with cytoplasmic streaming. These data allow you to infer that the species belongs to which of the following protist groups?
A. Excavata
B. Stramenopila
C. Rhizaria
D. Alveolata
E. Amoebozoa
18. Chagas disease is spread by the “kissing bug”. This disease affect 16-18 million people around the world and causes about 50,000 deaths annually and is caused by which protist?
A. Giardia
B. Trichomonas vaginalis
C. Trypanosoma cruzi
D. Plasmodioum
19. Dysentery is caused by _______________ and causes severe diarrhea. It is mostly prevalent in countries with a warm climate and poor sanitary conditions. In some places it is known as “Montezuma’s revenge”. Which of the following protists causes dysentery
A. Entamoeba histolytica
B. Phytophthora infestans
C. Plasmodioum
D. Dinoflagellates
20. What impact will the loss of land plants have on the soil?
A. Increase soil stability
B. Increase soil erosion
C. Increase nutrient levels
D. Decrease surface temperature
21. The major function of the medicinal compounds in plants is to _____.
A. as defense against herbivores
B. attract pollinators for seed dispersal
C. attract insects and birds to spread seeds and fruits
D. defend the plant against microbes
22. The most direct ancestors of land plants were probably _____.
A. liverworts and mosses B. green algae C. kelp (brown alga) D. cyanobacteria
23. What evidence indicates the movement of plants from water to land?
A. sporopollenin to inhibit evaporation from leaves
B. loss of structures that produce spores
C. remnants of chloroplasts from photosynthesizing cells
D. waxy cuticle to decrease evaporation from leaves
24. Which of these time intervals, based on plant fossils, came last (most recently)?
A. carboniferous swamps with giant horsetails and ferns
B. rise and diversification of angiosperms
C. colonization of land by early liverworts and mosses
D. extensive growth of gymnosperm forests
25. Angiosperms are the most successful terrestrial plants. Which of the following features is unique to them and helps account for their success?
A. embryos enclosed within seed coats
B. sperm cells without flagella
C. fruits enclosing seeds which contain the plant embryo
D. wind pollination
26. Protists and bacteria are grouped into different domains because _____.
A. bacteria are not made of cells
B. protists have a membrane-bounded nucleus, which bacterial cells lack
C. protists eat bacteria
D. protists are photosynthetic
27. The term gymnosperm refers to plants _____.
A. with “naked seeds” that do not produce flowers
B. that are non-vascular
C. that flower
D. with seeds protected within a fruit
28. What trait gives seeds an advantage over spores?
A. Protected from the environment
B. Small in size
C. Contain nutrients
D. Long-lived
29. Which of the following was a challenge to the survival of the first land plants?
A. desiccation
B. too much sunlight
C. a shortage of carbon dioxide
D. animal predation
30. _____ are angiosperms.
A. Roses
B. Fiddlehead ferns
C. Sphagnum mosses
D. Pine trees
31. Primary producers such as plants and green algae ____________.
A. Convert solar energy (light) to chemical energy (sugars)
B. Decompose decaying material in soil to produce energy
C. Consume other organisms to produce chemical energy (sugars) and solar energy (light)
D. Produce CO2 by performing photosynthesis
32. Plants provide many ecosystem services including production of oxygen and holding the soil. What is an ecosystem?
A. All the organisms or biotic factors in a particular area
B. All the living and nonliving components in a particular area
C. The nonliving or abiotic components in a particular area
D. All plants and animals in a given region
33. Stoma (plural: stomata) are____________.
A. Small openings called pores surrounded by specialized guard cells
B. Watertight sealants produced by plants to avoid desiccation
C. Specialized organelles in plant cells to perform photosynthesis
D. Modified leaves in a plant to avoid predation by herbivores
34. Flowers, the reproductive organ of a flowering plant, has two key reproductive structures called:
A. Seed and pistil
B. Stamen and fruit
C. Stamen and pistil
D. Seed and anther
35. The three main ways in which pollen is transported from plant to plant or flower to flower are:
A. Animals, wind, water
B. Wind, fungi, water
C. Animals, bees, wind
D. Fungi, water, insects
36. _____________ is a process by which pollen is transferred in plants.
A. Pollen grains
B. Style
C. Pollination
D. Translocation
37. True or False. The female part of the flower is the stamen.
A. True B. False
38. True or False. The main function of the endosperm is to provide nutrients for the embryo plant.
A. True B. False
39. True or False. Plants and not algae are the main primary producers in Earth’s oceans.
A. True B. False
40. True or False. Bryophytes such as mosses lack vascular tissue (xylem and phloem).
A. True B. False
41. Root hairs are most important to a plant because they ________.
A. anchor a plant in the soil
B. store starches
C. increase the surface area for absorption
D. provide a habitat for nitrogen-fixing bacteria
E. contain xylem tissue
42. As fuels, wood and coal ________.
A) are the main fuel sources in industrialized countries today.
B) are both formed from living or fossil plants.
C) are both formed under pressure deep in the Earth.
D) are sustainable as they are even now being made at high rates.
43. Molecular phylogenies show all land plants are a monophyletic group. This suggests ________.
A) there were many different transitions from aquatic to terrestrial habitats
B) wind-pollinated plants arose first
C) land plants have undergone a diversification since they first colonized terrestrial habitats
D) there was a single transition from aquatic to terrestrial habitats
44. Which of these time intervals, based on plant fossils, came last (most recently)?
A) extensive growth of gymnosperm forests
B) Silurian-Devonian explosion with fossils of plant lineages containing most of the major morphological innovations
C) colonization of land by early liverworts and mosses
D) rise and diversification of angiosperms
E) carboniferous swamps with giant horsetails and lycophytes
45. Why are seedless vascular plants considered paraphyletic rather than monophyletic?
A) Some of the groups within the seedless vascular plants are more closely related to each other than to other groups (such as Lycophyta).
B) They share a more recent common ancestor with seeded plants than they do with the non-vascular plants.
C) All of the groups contained within the seedless vascular plants do not have the same ancestor.
D) The group includes their common ancestor but also the seeded descendants of that same ancestor.
46. Which set contains the most closely related terms?
A) megasporangium, megaspore, pollen, ovule
B) microsporangium, microspore, egg, ovary
C) megasporangium, megaspore, egg, ovule
D) microsporangium, microspore, carpel, ovary
47. In the process of alternation of generations, the ________.
A) sporophyte is haploid and produces gametes
B) sporophyte is diploid and produces spores
C) gametophyte is haploid and produces spores
D) gametophyte is diploid and produces gametes
E) spores unite to form a zygote
48. Where are you LEAST likely to see green algae?
A) as pink snow in the mountains in summer
B) growing symbiotically with fungi in lichens or with some invertebrate animals
C) growing independently on dry rock in meadows
D) growing independently on wet rock in ponds and lakes
E) floating in seas and oceans
49. When a mosquito infected with Plasmodium first bites a human, the Plasmodium ________.
A) gametes fuse, forming an oocyst
B) cells infect the human liver cells
C) cells cause lysing of the human red blood cells
D) oocyst undergoes meiosis
50. Carbon dioxide enters the inner spaces of the leaf through the ________.
A) cuticle
B) epidermal trichomes
C) stoma
D) phloem
E) walls of guard cells
51. Which part of a plant absorbs most of the water and minerals taken up from the soil?
A) root cap
B) root hairs
C) the thick parts of the roots near the base of the stem
D) storage roots
E) sections of the root that have secondary xylem
52. When an animal cell is placed in a hypotonic solution and water enters the cell via osmosis, the volume of the cell increases until it bursts. This does NOT happen to plant cells, because ________.
A) they have large central vacuoles, which provide abundant space for storage of incoming water
B) the composition of their plasma membranes differs from that of animal-cell plasma membranes in a way that provides much greater strength
C) they have cell walls, which prevent the entry of water by osmosis
D) they have cell walls, which provide pressure to counteract the pressure of the incoming water
E) certain gated channel proteins embedded in their plasma membranes open as osmotic pressure decreases, allowing excess water to leave the cell
53. Compared to a cell with few aquaporins in its membrane, a cell containing many aquaporins will ________.
A) have a faster rate of osmosis
B) have a lower water potential
C) have a higher water potential
D) have a faster rate of active transport
E) be flaccid
54. Which cells in a root form a protective barrier to the vascular system where all materials must move through the symplast?
A) pericycle
B) cortex
C) epidermis
D) endodermis
E) exodermis
55. You are conducting an experiment on plant growth. You take a plant fresh from the soil that weighs 5 kilograms (kg). Then you dry the plant overnight and determine the dry weight to be 1 kg. Of this dry weight, how much would you expect to be made up of oxygen, carbon, and hydrogen?
A) 1 gram
B) 4 grams
C) 40 grams
D) 960 grams
E) 1 kg
56. Which of the following statements about essential nutrients are TRUE? Essential nutrients ________.
I. are necessary for plant growth and reproduction
II. are required for a specific structure or metabolic function
III. cannot be synthesized by a plant
IV. are produced by symbiotic bacteria
A) I and IV
B) II, III, and IV
C) I, II, and III
D) I, II, III, and IV
57. Which criteria allow biologists to divide chemicals into macronutrients and micronutrients?
A) molecular weight of the element or compound
B) the quantities of each required by plants
C) how they are used in metabolism
D) whether or not they are essential for plant growth
58. A mineral deficiency is likely to affect older leaves more than younger leaves if the ________.
A) mineral is a micronutrient
B) mineral is very mobile within the plant
C) mineral is required for chlorophyll synthesis
D) mineral is a macronutrient
E) older leaves are in direct sunlight
59. Which of the following elements correctly pairs an essential element in plants with its function?
A) nitrogen–component of nucleic acids, proteins, hormones, coenzymes
B) magnesium–component of nucleic acids, phospholipids, ATP
C) phosphorus–cofactor functioning in protein synthesis
D) sulfur–component of DNA; activates some enzymes
60. Why is nitrogen fixation an essential process?
A) Fixed nitrogen is often the limiting factor in plant growth.
B) Nitrogen fixation is very expensive in terms of metabolic energy.
C) Nitrogen-fixing capacity can be genetically engineered.
D) None of the above
61. Nitrogen fixation is a process that ________.
A) recycles nitrogen compounds from dead and decaying materials
B) converts ammonia to ammonium
C) releases nitrate from the rock substrate
D) converts nitrogen gas into ammonia
E) recycles nitrogen compounds from dead and decaying materials and converts ammonia to ammonium
62. Which of the following, if used as a fertilizer, would be most immediately available for plant uptake?
A) NH3
B) N2
C) CN2H2
D) NO3-
63. In what way do nitrogen compounds differ from other minerals needed by plants? Only nitrogen ________.
A) can be lost from the soil
B) can be provided by symbiotic bacteria
C) is needed for protein synthesis
D) is held by cation exchange capacity in the soil
E) can be absorbed by root hairs
64. What is the correct sequence of steps during infection of plants by nitrogen-fixing bacteria?
A) Rhizobia release Nod factors; roots release flavonoids; rhizobia proliferate inside of root hair; infection thread grows into the root cortex; nodule forms.
B) Rhizobia release flavonoids; roots release Nod factors; rhizobia proliferate inside of root hair; infection thread grows into the root cortex; nodule forms.
C) Roots release flavonoids; rhizobia release Nod factors; rhizobia proliferate inside of root hair; nodule forms; infection thread grows into the root cortex.
D) Roots release flavonoids; rhizobia release Nod factors; rhizobia proliferate inside of root hair; infection thread grows into the root cortex; nodule forms.
E) Nodule forms; infection thread grows into the root cortex; rhizobia proliferate inside of root hair; rhizobia release flavonoids and Nod factors.
65. Carnivorous plants have evolved mechanisms that trap and digest small animals. The products of this digestion are used to supplement the plant’s supply of ________.
A) water
B) carbohydrates
C) lipids and steroids
D) nitrogen, nutrient, and other minerals
66. Which of the following statements about nitrogen fixation in root nodules is correct?
A) The plant contributes the nitrogenase enzyme.
B) The process is relatively inexpensive in terms of ATP costs.
C) Leghemoglobin helps maintain a low oxygen concentration within the nodule.
D) The process tends to deplete nitrogen compounds in the soil.
E) The bacteria of the nodule are autotrophic.
67. Most of the dry mass of a plant is derived from ________.
A) NO3- and CO2
B) K+ and CO2
C) PO4 and K+
D) H2O and K+
E) H2O and CO2
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