Advanced Health Assessment Quizzes

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Advanced Health Assessment Quizzes

(Advanced Health Assessment Quizzes)

NR 507 Weekly Quizzes Week 1 – 7 (Version No. 2)

NR 507 Week No. 1 Quiz

1. Question : Which statement is true about fungal infections?

2. Question : Once they have penetrated the first line of defense, which microorganisms do neutrophils actively attack, engulf, and destroy by phagocytosis?

3. Question : After sexual transmission of HIV, a person can be infected yet seronegative for _____ months.

4. Question : What of the following remains a significant cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide?

5. Question : Cells in _____ may act as a reservoir in which HIV can be relatively protected from antiviral drugs.

6. Question : Which statement about vaccines is true?

7. Question : The class of antibody involved in type I hypersensitivity reactions is

8. Question : In which primary immune deficiency is there a partial to complete absence of T-cell immunity?

9. Question : During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, what causes bronchospasm?

10. Question : Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function?

11. Question : Hypersensitivity is best defined as a(n)

12. Question : In a type II hypersensitivity reaction, when soluble antigens from infectious agents enter circulation, tissue damage is a result of

13. Question : What is the mechanism in type III hypersensitivity reactions?

14. Question : During a stress response, increased anxiety, vigilance, and arousal is prompted by

15. Question : Stress-age syndrome results in decreased

16. Question : Which hormone increases the formation of glucose from amino acids and free fatty acids?

17. Question : What effect does estrogen have on lymphocytes?

18. Question : Intestinal polyps are benign neoplasms and the first stage in development of colon cancer. These findings support the notion that

19. Question : Which of the following cancers originate from connective tissue?

20. Question : Which of the viruses below are oncogenic DNA viruses?

21. Question : Cells from a muscle tumor show a reduced ability to form new muscle and appear highly disorganized. This is an example of

22. Question : Which of the following represents the correct nomenclature for benign and malignant tumors of adipose tissue, respectively?

23. Question : In chronic myeloid leukemia (CML), a piece of chromosome 9 fuses to a piece of chromosome 22. This is an example of which mutation of normal genes to oncogenes?

24. Question : Tobacco smoking is associated with cancers of all of the following except

25. Question : Childhood exposure to all of the following risk factors increases susceptibility to cancer except

NR 507 Week No. 2 Quiz

(Advanced Health Assessment Quizzes)

1. Question: In hyperkalemia, cardiac rhythm changes are a direct result of cardiac cell hypopolarization.

2. Question: When thirst is experienced, how are osmoreceptors activated?

3. Question: Which are indications of dehydration?

4. Question: At the arterial end of capillaries, fluid moves from the intravascular space into the interstitial space because the interstitial hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary hydrostatic pressure.

5. Question: Which enzyme is secreted by the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney when circulating blood volume is reduced?

6. Question: Why are infants susceptible to significant losses in total body water (TBW)?

7. Question: Physiologic pH is maintained around 7.4 because bicarbonate (HCO3) and carbonic acid (H2CO3) exist in a ratio of

8. Question: In ARDS, alveoli and respiratory bronchioles fill with fluid as a result of the compression on the pores of Kohn, thus preventing collateral ventilation.

9. Question: Dyspnea is not a result of

10. Question: Clinical manifestations of pulmonary hypertension include

11. Question: Pulmonary edema usually begins at a pulmonary capillary wedge pressure or left atrial pressure of _____ mm Hg.

12. Question: Clinical manifestations that include unexplained weight loss, dyspnea on exertion, use of accessory muscles, and tachypnea with prolonged expiration are indicative of

13. Question: Which pleural abnormality involves a site of pleural rupture that act as a one-way valve, permitting air to enter on inspiration but preventing its escape by closing during expiration?

14. Question: A(n) _____ is a circumscribed area of suppuration and destruction of lung parenchyma

15. Question: Which of the following is a true statement?

16. Question: High altitudes may produce hypoxemia through

17. Question: The most successful treatment for chronic asthma begins with

18. Question: In tuberculosis, the body walls off the bacilli in a tubercle by stimulating

19. Question: The release of fibroblast growth factors affects ARDS by causing

20. Question: An accurate description of childhood asthma is that it is a(n)

21. Question: What is the primary cause of RDS of the newborn?

22. Question: Cystic fibrosis (CF) is caused by a(n)

23. Question: Chest wall compliance in infants is _____ in adults.

24. Question: Which of the following types of croup is most common?

25. Question: Which of the following statements about the advances in the treatment of RDS of the newborn is incorrect?

NR 507 Week No. 3 Quiz

(Advanced Health Assessment Quizzes)

• Question 1. A 72-year-old woman with a recent onset of syncopal episodes has been referred to a cardiology group by her family physician. As part of the patient’s diagnostic workup, the nurse practitioner conducting the intake assessment has ordered a Holter monitor for 24 hours. Which of the following statements best captures an aspect of Holter monitoring?

• Question 2. As part of the diagnostic workup for a male patient with a complex history of cardiovascular disease, the care team has identified the need for a record of the electrical activity of his heart, insight into the metabolism of his myocardium, and physical measurements, and imaging of his heart. Which of the following series of tests is most likely to provide the needed data for his diagnosis and care?

• Question 3. An 81-year-old female patient of a long-term care facility has a history of congestive heart failure. The nurse practitioner caring for the patient has positioned her sitting up at an angle in bed and is observing her jugular venous distention. Why is jugular venous distention a useful indicator for the assessment of the patient’s condition?

• Question 4. A physical assessment of a 28-year-old female patient indicates that her blood pressure in her legs is lower than that in her arms and that her brachial pulse is weaker in her left arm than in her right. In addition, her femoral pulses are weak bilaterally. Which of the following possibilities would her care provider be most likely to suspect?

• Question 5. A 6-year-old boy has been brought to the emergency department by ambulance after his mother discovered that his heart rate was “so fast I couldn’t even count it.” The child was determined to be in atrial flutter and his mother is seeking an explanation from the health care team. Which of the following points should underlie an explanation to the mother?

• Question 6. A 66-year-old patient’s echocardiogram reveals a hypertrophied left ventricle, normal chamber volume, and a normal ejection fraction from the heart. What is this patient’s most likely diagnosis?

• Question 7. A 70-year-old male patient presents to the emergency department complaining of pain in his calf that is exacerbated when he walks. His pedal and popliteal pulses are faintly palpable and his leg distal to the pain is noticeably reddened. What would his care provider’s preliminary diagnosis and anticipated treatment most likely be?

• Question 8. A patient in the intensive care unit has a blood pressure of 87/39 and has warm, flushed skin accompanying his sudden decline in level of consciousness. The patient also has arterial and venous dilation and a decrease in systemic vascular resistance. What is this patient’s most likely diagnosis?

• Question 9. A 31-year-old woman with a congenital heart defect reports episodes of lightheadedness and syncope, with occasional palpitations. A resting electrocardiogram reveals sinus bradycardia and she is suspected of having sick sinus syndrome. Which of the following diagnostic methods is the best choice to investigate the suspicion?

• Question 10. A nurse practitioner is providing care for several patients on a medical unit of a hospital. In which of the following patient situations would the nurse practitioner be most likely to rule out hypertension as a contributing factor?

• Question 11. A patient is experiencing impaired circulation secondary to increased systemic arterial pressure. Which of the following statements is the most relevant phenomenon?

• Question 12. A number of patients have presented to the emergency department in the last 24 hours with complaints that are preliminarily indicative of myocardial infarction. Which of the following patients is least likely to have an ST-segment myocardial infarction (STEMI)?

• Question 13. A formerly normotensive woman, pregnant for the first time, develops hypertension and headaches at 26 weeks’ gestation. Her blood pressure is 154/110 mm Hg and she has proteinuria. What other labs should be ordered for her?

• Question 14. An older adult female patient has presented with a new onset of shortness of breath, and the patient’s nurse practitioner has ordered measurement of her BNP levels along with other diagnostic tests. What is the most accurate rationale for the nurse practitioner’s choice of blood work?

• Question 15. The nurse practitioner for a cardiology practice is responsible for providing presurgical teaching for patients who are about to undergo a coronary artery bypass graft. Which of the following teaching points best conveys an aspect of the human circulatory system?

• Question 16. A 54-year-old man with a long-standing diagnosis of essential hypertension is meeting with his nurse practitioner. The patient’s nurse practitioner would anticipate that which of the following phenomena is most likely occurring?

(Advanced Health Assessment Quizzes)

• Question 17. A 22-year-old male is experiencing hypovolemic shock following a fight in which his carotid artery was cut with a broken bottle. What immediate treatments are likely to most benefit the man?

• Question 18. A 66-year-old obese man with a diagnosis of ischemic heart disease has been diagnosed with heart failure that his care team has characterized as attributable to systolic dysfunction. Which of the following assessment findings is inconsistent with his diagnosis?

• Question 19. A 68-year-old male complains to his nurse practitioner that when he tests his blood pressure using a machine at his pharmacy, his heart rate is nearly always very low. At other times, he feels that his heart is racing, and it also seems to pause at times. The man has also occasionally had lightheadedness and a recent syncopal episode. What is this patient’s most likely diagnosis and the phenomenon underlying it?

• Question 20. An autopsy is being performed on a 44-year-old female who died unexpectedly of heart failure. Which of the following components of the pathologist’s report is most suggestive of a possible history of poorly controlled blood pressure?

• Question 21. During a routine physical examination of a 66-year-old woman, her nurse practitioner notes a pulsating abdominal mass and refers the woman for further treatment. The nurse practitioner is explaining the diagnosis to the patient, who is unfamiliar with aneurysms. Which of the following aspects of the pathophysiology of aneurysms would underlie the explanation the nurse provides?

• Question 22. A patient has suffered damage to his pericardium following a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following consequences should the nurse practitioner be most likely to rule out?

• Question 23. A nurse practitioner is instructing a group of older adults about the risks associated with high cholesterol. Which of the following teaching points should the participants try to integrate into their lifestyle after the teaching session?

• Question 24. An 81-year-old male resident of a long-term care facility has a long-standing diagnosis of heart failure. Which of the following short-term and longer-term compensatory mechanisms is least likely to decrease the symptoms of his heart failure?

• Question 25. A 55-year-old male who is beginning to take a statin drug for his hypercholesterolemia is discussing cholesterol and its role in health and illness with his nurse practitioner. Which of the following aspects of hyperlipidemia would the nurse practitioner most likely take into account when teaching the patient?

NR 507 Week No. 5 Quiz

(Advanced Health Assessment Quizzes)

1. Question : Which hormone is involved in the regulation of serum calcium levels?

2. Question : Where is oxytocin synthesized?

3. Question : Which of the following is a lipid-soluble hormone?

4. Question : Which mineral is needed for the synthesis of thyroid hormones?

5. Question : The portion of the pituitary that secretes oxytocin is the _____ pituitary.

6. Question : Hormones are effective communicators because they

7. Question : What effect does hyperphosphatemia have on other electrolytes?

8. Question : What is the target tissue for prolactin-releasing factor (PRF)?

9. Question : Target cells for parathyroid hormone (PTH) are located in the

10. Question : Lipid-soluble hormone receptors are located

11. Question : A surgical individual just arrived on the unit from the postanesthesia care unit. This person’s respirations are 4 per minute and shallow. As the nurse calls for assistance, the person suddenly feels jittery and breathing quickens. Which of the following feedback loops is operating for the nurse in this situation?

(Advanced Health Assessment Quizzes)

12. Question : Which of the following hormones acts on its target cell via a second messenger?

13. Question : The level of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) in Graves disease is usually

14. Question : Which of the following laboratory values is consistently low in a client with diabetes insipidus (DI)?

15. Question : Polyuria occurs with diabetes mellitus because of

16. Question : The first lab test that indicates type 1 diabetes is causing the development of diabetic nephropathy is

17. Question : A person has acne, easy bruising, thin extremities, and truncal obesity. These clinical manifestations are indicative of which endocrine disorder?

18. Question : Visual disturbances are a result of a pituitary adenoma because of the

19. Question : Hyperpituitarism is generally caused by

20. Question : Which of the following clinical manifestations is not common to both diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome (HHNKS)?

21. Question : The cause of neurogenic diabetes insipidus (DI) is related to an organic lesion of the

22. Question : The most probable cause of low serum calcium following a thyroidectomy is

23. Question : Which of the following laboratory values would the nurse expect to find if a person is experiencing syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?

24. Question : A person with type 1 diabetes experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. The most probable cause of these symptoms is

25. Question : The effects of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) include solute

NR 507 Week No. 6 Quiz

(Advanced Health Assessment Quizzes)

1. Question : _____ is a chronic inflammatory joint disease characterized by stiffening and fusion of the spine and sacroiliac joints.

2. Question : What pattern of bone destruction is described as not well defined and not easily separated from normal bone?

3. Question : _____ is the temporary displacement of two bones in which the bone surfaces partially lose contact.

4. Question : Which of the following attaches skeletal muscle to bone?

5. Question : Which statement is false about giant cell tumors?

6. Question : Considering the pathophysiology of osteoporosis, what are the effects of extracellular signal regulated kinases (ERKs) and receptor activator of RANKL on osteoblasts and osteoclasts?

(Advanced Health Assessment Quizzes)

7. Question : What is the diagnosis of a person who has tennis elbow characterized by tissue degeneration or irritation of the extensor carpi brevis tendon?

8. Question : Cerebral palsy is usually a result of

9. Question : Molecular analysis has demonstrated that osteosarcoma is associated with

10. Question : Ewing sarcoma arises from

11. Question : Which protein, absent in muscle cells of Duchenne muscular dystrophy, mediates the anchoring of skeletal muscles fibers to the basement membrane?

12. Question : Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy is likely inherited from one’s

13. Question : The pain experienced in Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease is referred to as involving

14. Question : The total mass of muscle in the body can be estimated from which serum laboratory test value?

15. Question : An insufficient dietary intake of vitamin _____ can lead to rickets in children.

16. Question : Which type of psoriasis is characterized by lesions on the elbows and knees that are well demarcated, thick, silvery, scaly, and erythematous?

17. Question : Women who develop hirsutism may be secreting hormones associated with

18. Question : An older adult man states he has a sore above his lip that has not healed and is getting bigger. The nurse observes a red scaly patch with an ulcerated center and sharp margins. The nurse recognizes these features as commonly associated with Bowen disease, a form of

19. Question : Which receptors of the autonomic nervous system regulate heat loss through the skin?

20. Question : Treatment for frostbite includes

21. Question : Rubeola is a highly contagious acute _____ disease in children.

22. Question : What is a common source of tinea corporis?

23. Question : Which skin disorder has as its hallmark clinical manifestation skin lesions that rupture, creating a thin, flat, honey-colored crust?

24. Question : Which of the following viral diseases has an incubation period of 14 to 21 days and a duration of 1 to 4 days?

25. Question : What is the cause of chickenpox?

NR 507 Week No. 7 Quiz

(Advanced Health Assessment Quizzes)

1. Question : Cerebral edema is an increase in the fluid content of the

2. Question : Vomiting is associated with CNS injuries that compress which anatomic location(s)?

3. Question : What is the best prognostic indicator of recovery of consciousness or functional outcome?

4. Question : With receptive dysphasia (fluent), the individual is able to

5. Question : The body compensates to a rise in intracranial pressure by first displacing

6. Question : Characteristics of primary motor neuron amyotrophy include

7. Question : In Parkinson disease (PD), the basal ganglia influences the hypothalamic function to produce which grouping of clinical manifestations?

8. Question : What pathologic alteration produces tremors at rest, rigidity, akinesia, and postural abnormalities?

9. Question : Multiple sclerosis (MS) and Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) are similar in that they both

10. Question : The edema of the upper cervical cord after spinal cord injury is considered life threatening because of

11. Question : A man who sustained a cervical spinal cord injury 2 days ago suddenly develops severe hypertension and bradycardia. He reports severe head pain and blurred vision. The most likely explanation for these clinical manifestations is that he is

12. Question : Spinal cord injuries are most likely to occur in which of the following regions?

13. Question : Which neurotransmitter receptors are blocked by antipsychotic drugs?

14. Question : Which neurotransmitter is inhibited in generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)?

15. Question : Which electrolyte imbalance contributes to lithium toxicity?

16. Question : A _____ is the test done on amniotic fluid and maternal blood to test for neural tube defect.

17. Question : Anterior midline defects of neural tube closure cause developmental defects in the

18. Question : The clinical manifestations of dyskinetic cerebral palsy include

19. Question : A person who has cholera would be expected to have which type of diarrhea?

20. Question : The most common manifestation of portal hypertension induced splenomegaly is

21. Question : The desire to eat is stimulated by

22. Question : Meconium _____ is an intestinal obstruction caused by meconium formed in utero that is abnormally sticky and adheres firmly to the mucosa of the small intestine.

23. Question : Congenital aganglionic megacolon (Hirschsprung disease) involves inadequate motility of the colon caused by neural malformation of the _____ nervous system.

24. Question : Which disorder is characterized by an increase in the percentages in T cells and complement together with IgA and IgM antigliadin antibodies found in jejunum fluid?

25. Question : Which of the following medications compensates for the deficiency that occurs as a result of cystic fibrosis?

 
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Inferential Research & Statistics Project

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Inferential Research & Statistics Project

(Inferential Research & Statistics Project)

Inferential Research and Statistics Project

Part 1

Select one of the following scenarios based on your particular field of interest in psychology:

·         Industrial/Organizational Psychology:

o    A few months ago, the upper management at a large corporation decided they wanted to make major changes in the organization. Leadership is concerned that employees may be resistant to the change, and they want to find out if there is a change management method that would help employees accept change more effectively and keep employee satisfaction high. Two methods they have considered are the ADKAR Framework and the Prosci Change Management Methodology. The company wants to implement a small change in two departments before they make any major organization changes and would like to test the methods. The corporation uses the Devine Company to measure employee satisfaction with an anonymous survey.

·         Applied Psychology: 

o    A large medical facility is experiencing too many missed appointments in its primary and specialty care clinics. The facility has noticed that not all patients respond well to reminder calls regarding follow-up appointments. Some patients do not answer calls and do not seem to respond to voice mail requesting they call the facility. The result is that many follow up appointments are missed. Management has read articles that people respond very well to text messages and would like to see which method provides the least amount of missed appointments. Missed appointments are tracked in the facility database on a monthly basis.

·         General Psychology: 

o    Clinicians at a small clinic have been introduced to a new method to treat post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) in their clients for veterans. Research indicates that virtual reality (VR) is a highly effective treatment option for patients with PTSD. Currently, the clinic uses only cognitive processing therapy (CPT) with their patients suffering from PTSD. The clinicians would like to find out whether VR therapy has different results from CPT therapy. The measure used by the clinic to measure PTSD symptoms is the Combat Exposure Scale. Both therapies need to be applied for a minimum of 12 weeks to be effective.

Write a 525- to 750-word paper that addresses the following for your chosen scenario:

·         Clearly define the problem or issue you are addressing. Provide a brief background of any research you have found that might affect your research hypothesis.

·         Create a research hypothesis based on the information provided in each scenario. You will be given a data set with two sets of interval data (just the numbers, as you must decide what they represent, such as method A results or method B results). This means you are going to test one thing against another, such as which method works best (step 1 of the steps to hypothesis testing). State the null and research hypotheses. Explain whether these hypotheses require a one-tailed test or two-tailed test, and explain your rationale.

·         Describe the sample you will use. Sample size will be 30 for each group, which will be provided in your data set. Explain what type of sampling you selected. You may create your own data set if you want, as it is only hypothetical—you do not need to collect any data.

·         Do you think you would also collect some descriptive data, such as gender, age, or shift? Why do you think it makes sense to collect descriptive data?

 Format your paper according to APA guidelines.

 Example

You have a hypothesis that two drugs have different effects on lowering anxiety. You would have anxiety scores for drug A and anxiety scores for drug B (all after 4 weeks of treatment) to run inferential analysis  after 4 weeks.

·         Null hypothesis is H0: drug A = drug B

·         Research hypothesis is H1: drug A ≠ drug B

·         Dependent variable: Anxiety score changed after treatment.

·         Independent variable: drug treatment

Because you did not state a direction in your hypotheses (better than or worse than), this will be a two-tailed test. You are looking for differences in either direction. You would set your alpha level of .05 and have a sample for each group of 30 people that were volunteers for the study.

Part 2

Analyze the data from Part 1 using Microsoft® Excel® software.

Write a 700- to 875-word paper that includes the following information:

·         Describe what method you are using to compare groups.

·         Copy and paste the output into a Microsoft® Word document, and also answer the following questions:

o    What is the significance level of the comparison?

o    What was the alpha level you identified in Week 3?

o    What was the means and variance for each variable?

o    What was the test statistic?

o    What was the critical value for both the one- and two-tailed test?

o    Was your test one-tailed or two-tailed?

o    Were you able to reject the null hypothesis? In other words, did you prove there was a difference?

·         Talk about what these results mean in everyday language and in context to your chosen scenario.

·         Make a recommendation based on the findings.

Format your paper according to APA guidelines.

Example of Output You Would Use to Answer These Questions

 

t Test: Two-Sample Assuming Equal Variances
          Variable 1        Variable 2
Mean 4.875 8
Variance 5.267857143 18.28571429
Observations 8 8
Pooled variance 11.77678571
Hypothesized mean difference 0
df 14
t stat -1.821237697
P(T <= t) one-tail 0.045002328
t Critical one-tail 1.761310136
P(T <= t) two-tail 0.090004655
t Critical two-tail 2.144786688

Part 3

Create a 12- to 15-slide presentation using the information you gathered and submitted in Weeks 3 & 4. Include the following:

·         Describe the problem, and provide some brief background about the situation.

·         Explain the research hypothesis.

·         Describe your sample and your sampling method.

·         Explain the four steps of the research process you followed, and define the critical value and the test statistic your analysis provided.

·         Provide the main finding of the study. What did you prove or fail to prove?

·         Provide recommendations based on your findings.

Format any citations in your presentation according to APA guidelines.

 
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Ethical Issues During Forensic Assessments

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Assignment 2: RA: Ethical Issues during Forensic Assessments

(Ethical Issues During Forensic Assessments)

When conducting forensic assessments, it is  important for forensic mental health professionals to have a thorough  understanding of the following:

  • Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct Including 2010 Amendments
  • Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology: Adopted by APA Council of Representatives

Ethical issues are commonly present when  completing forensic assessments. Read the scenario below and discuss the  ethical issues therein.

Dr. Smith was contacted by the District  County Attorney’s office to evaluate Mr. Doe as part of a sexually  violent predator civil commitment hearing. Dr. Smith agreed to complete  the evaluation and contacted the prison facility, where Mr. Doe was  being held, to schedule an appointment.

Upon arrival at the prison, Mr. Doe’s  attorney indicated that he wanted to be present for the interview and  psychological testing. Dr. Smith agreed, and they proceeded with the  interview. During the interview, while discussing his sex offense  history, Mr. Doe admitted to offending against two adult females. He  also reported offending against his three-year-old daughter. He  indicated that his relationship with his wife, although rocky at times,  is generally supportive. Upon inquiry, he reported a history of domestic  abuse, which was never reported. He explained that due to his arrest  and incarceration, his wife has had to find a job to be able to continue  to afford their housing. He reported that he previously worked as a  general maintenance worker at a local trucking company. He explained  that he cheated on his wife with a coworker, who has since stopped all  communication. He indicated that this coworker used to visit and send  him letters and money when he was first “locked up.” He reported that he  was angry that she ceased all communication, without explanation, and  spoke of her with rage and hostility. He said, “If I ever see her again,  I’ll kill her.”

During the administration of the  psychological tests, Mr. Doe asked to use the restroom once and was  provided another five-minute break. There was a great deal of background  noise throughout the interview and administration. On two occasions,  Mr. Doe asked his attorney how he should answer the question. He was  advised, and he answered as such. Upon the completion of testing, Dr.  Smith thanked Mr. Doe and his attorney for their time and indicated that  he would see them in court.

If released, Mr. Doe will return to his home  with his wife and two daughters. He has reported to the prison staff  that he will also return to his previous job and may enroll in  vocational classes at an area community college.

Tasks:

As a forensic mental health professional, discuss the ethical issues in the scenario. Refer to the following resources:

  • American Psychological Association. (2010). Ethical principles of
                               psychologists and code of conduct including 2010 amendments.
    Retrieved from http://www.apa.org/ethics/code/index.aspx
  • American Psychology-Law Society. (2011). Specialty guidelines for forensic
                               psychology: Adopted by APA Council of Representatives [Unofficial
    version]. Retrieved from http://www.ap-ls.org/aboutpsychlaw/
    SGFP_Final_Approved_2011.pdf

Write a 5- to 6-page report in a Microsoft Word document addressing the following:

  • Identify the appropriate APA ethical code(s) and the specialty guidelines that may apply to this scenario.
  • Examine the limits of confidentiality. How might those limits be affected by some of the information contained in the scenario?
  • Discuss specific circumstances in the case study in which there might be a duty to report or duty to warn.
  • Explain the limitations of what the evaluator can and cannot say.
  • Discuss the implications of the third-party observer to the overall evaluation.

Your report should rely upon at least four  scholarly resources from the professional literature that are cited in  APA format. The literature may include the Argosy University online  library resources; relevant textbooks; peer-reviewed journal articles;  and websites created by professional organizations, agencies, or  institutions (.edu, and .gov).

Submission Detail

  •   Assignment Component
    Proficiency
    Max Points
    Identify   the appropriate APA ethical code(s) and the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic   Psychologists that appear within this scenario.CO   1APA   ethical code(s) and the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychologists   identified are accurate for the scenario and cover all codes and guidelines   present in the scenario. Specific examples of how they appear in the scenario   are identified and completely explained.
    /   52 pts
    Examine   the limits to confidentiality.

    CO   1

    Limits   to confidentiality are accurately identified and specific to the scenario.   Specific examples and references to research are used to support ideas.
    /   32 pts
    Discuss   duty to report and/or duty to warn.

    CO   1

    Specific   circumstances in which there is the duty to report and/or warn in the case   example are accurately identified. All instances of appropriateness for duty   to report and/or warn are discussed.

    /   28 pts
    Explain   the limitations of what the evaluator can and cannot say

    CO   1 and 2

    Limitations   of what evaluator can and cannot say are accurately identified and clearly   explained. Specific examples and references to research are used to support   ideas. All limitations that are appropriate to the scenario are presented and   thoroughly explained.

    /   40 pts
    Discuss   the implications of the third-party observer to the overall evaluation.

    CO   1

    Discussion   of the implications of third-party observers is clear, complete, and   thoughtful. Specific examples of how it impacts the evaluation and references   to research are used to support ideas.
    /   28 pts
    Write in a clear, concise, and organized manner;   demonstrate ethical scholarship in accurate representation and attribution of   sources; display accurate spelling, grammar, and punctuation.

    Writing   is generally clear and in an organized manner. It demonstrates ethical   scholarship in accurate representation and attribution of sources; and   generally displays accurate spelling, grammar, punctuation. Errors are few,   isolated, and do not interfere with reader’s comprehension.
    /   20 pts

    Total
    / 200 pts

 
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Importance Of Feedback Presentation

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Assignment 2: Importance of Feedback Presentation

(Importance Of Feedback Presentation)

Feedback presentation is crucial in any learning or working environment as it significantly impacts growth, improvement, and overall performance. Constructive feedback, when delivered effectively, helps individuals understand their strengths and identify areas needing improvement, fostering a culture of continuous development. Clear, specific, and actionable feedback ensures that the recipient knows exactly what actions to take to enhance their performance.

(Importance Of Feedback Presentation)

Designing a performance management system is only part of the process. The next step is implementation. Communication is an essential step in this process as without feedback, employees and managers are unable to take action on any of the information resulting from a performance appraisal. Feedback must be provided in a timely, appropriate manner in order to be effective and productive. For this assignment, you are to design a communication training presentation of approximately 15 minutes for managers at a client organization. You will educate managers on the importance of quality feedback.

Directions:

  • Discuss the importance of communication in the performance appraisal process.
  • Describe two examples of poor communication as it relates to the appraisal process (written or multimedia).
  • Describe two examples of quality communication as it relates to the appraisal process (written or multimedia).
  • Recommend at least five communication strategies for the feedback process. Describe and provide examples of how to apply each.

Your final product will be a 10- to 15-minute presentation (using Microsoft PowerPoint Show, Prezi, PowToon, or other presentation software and including audio). Utilize at least two scholarly sources in your research. Your presentation should be written in a clear, concise, and organized manner; demonstrate ethical scholarship in accurate representation and attribution of sources; and display accurate spelling, grammar, and punctuation.

Technical Requirements:

  • Presentation Software
  • Microphone

Helpful Recommended Presentation Tutorial Resources:

Submission Details:

 
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Journal Article Summary

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Journal Article Summary

(Journal Article Summary)

For this assignment, you will identify a published research article either in the print literature or online in the Capella Library. Your article must be based on empirical (data-based) research; qualitative or purely descriptive research is not appropriate. Select a journal article in your career specialization that reports a correlation, a t test, a one-way ANOVA, or some combination of these test statistics. The library guides listed in the Resources area can help you to locate appropriate articles.

The intent of this assignment is to:

  • Expose you to professional literature in your discipline.
  • Provide practice in the interpretation of statistical results contained in an empirical (data-based) journal article.
  • Provide practice in writing and thinking in a concise and economical manner that is typical of scientific discourse.

You will summarize the article in a maximum of 600 words using the DAA Template located in the Resources area. Specific instructions for completing each section of the DAA Template are listed below.

You may use some of the author’s own words to summarize the article with proper citation, but avoid lengthy direct quotes (such as copying multiple sentences or paragraphs verbatim). You should not exceed the limit of 600 words. This is a situation where less is better.

Step 1: Write Section 1 of the DAA.

  • Provide a brief summary of the journal article.
  • Include a definition of the specified variables (predictor, outcome) and corresponding scales of measurement (nominal, continuous).
  • Specify the sample size of the data set.
  • Discuss why the journal article is relevant to your career specialization.

Step 2: Write Section 2 of the DAA.

  • Discuss the assumptions of the statistical test used in the journal article.
    • If possible, identify information in the article about how these assumptions were tested.
    • If no information on assumptions is provided, consider this as a limitation of the reported study.

Step 3: Write Section 3 of the DAA.

  • Specify the research question from the journal article.
  • Articulate the null hypothesis and alternative hypothesis.

Step 4: Write Section 4 of the DAA.

  • Report the results of the statistical test using proper APA guidelines. This includes:
    • The statistical notation (such as r, t, or F).
    • The degrees of freedom.
    • The statistical value of r, t, or F, and the p value.
  • Report the effect size and interpretation if one is provided.
  • Interpret the test statistic with regard to the null hypothesis.

Step 5: Write Section 5 of the DAA.

  • Discuss the conclusions of the statistical test as it relates to the research question.
  • Conclude with an analysis of the strengths and limitations of the study reported in the journal article.

Submit your DAA Template as an attached Word document in the assignment area.

Resources

APA Style and Format.

 
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Psych665 Research Multimedia Activity

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Psych665 Research Multimedia Activity

(Psych665 Research Multimedia Activity)

Research Multimedia Activity

Complete the Research multimedia activity.

Take a screenshot of your results page and upload the PDF to your Assignment Files tab

1: Match the Individual with the Seminal Study

Rene Decartes

Charles Darwin

Wilheim Wundt

Edward Lee Thorndike

Ivan Pavlov

John B. Watson

BF Skinner

Sigmund Freud

Carl Jung

Alfred Binet

2: Match the Individual with the Seminal Study

James Cattell

Frances Galton

Lewis Terman

Clark Hull

Arnold Gesell

Henry Murray

Jean Piaget

Gordon Allport

Erik Erikson

3: Which of the following researcher(s) conducted a combination of observation and Experimental Research?

4: Which of the following researcher(s) conducted philosophical research?

5: Which of the following researcher(s) conducted observational research?

6: Which of the following researcher(s) conducted introspective research?

7: Which of the following researcher(s) conducted experimental research?

8: Which of the following researcher(s) conducted theoretical research?

9: Which of the following researcher(s) conducted testing research?

10: Which of the following researcher(s) conducted statistical research?

11: Which of the following researcher(s) conducted longitudinal research?

12: Which of the following researcher(s) conducted lexical analysis research?

13: Dr. Jones is a practicing clinical psychologist who is videotaping and coding counseling sessions of the students in his practicum class to evaluate their counseling skills and help them improve.

14:Dr. Daal wants to identify the best of two final exams to give to his introductory biology students. He will give one exam to his Monday class and the second exam to his Thursday class, then using SPSS he will analyze the two exams to identify which one to continue using in the future.

15: Ms. Harte is examining the effects of a new plagiarism prevention program at the university. Seven introductory courses will include the new program, while the rest continue with the standard curriculum. For the next five classes, the papers of the students who participated in the new program will be compared to those who did not have the new program to evaluate the effectiveness of the program.

16:Dr. Soon is examining how noise affects concentration. She randomly assigns half of the college freshman who volunteer for the study to work on a computerized reaction time test in a room with an open window that overlooks a busy street with high traffic. The other half of the volunteers perform the same task in a very quiet room with no windows.

17: Dr. Aper wants to examine the effects of alien abduction on academic performance. The academic records of thirty students who self-identify as having been abducted are compared to the academic records of the students who were not abducted.

 
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Formulating Effective PICOT Questions

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Formulating Effective PICOT Questions

(Formulating Effective PICOT Questions)

Nursing Research :Nursing Situation and Formulate a PICOT Question

Question description

Evidence-based systematic literature review and analysis is conducted to respond to a patient problem that requires a solution. Such a review of the literature includes a focused, systematic review from library databases to gather the most current research literature. In this exercise, you are asked to review literature relevant to the US Heath care system. (Note: You will have made progress in gathering literature for the paper later in the course). The most common way to display literature is with an evidence-based literature table. The table is analyzed to provide recommendations for guidelines and standard of care for the patient problem. Thus, you can contribute to your agency with improved patient care procedures and policy that ultimately can inform quality of care. An important initial step to effectively and efficiently search the literature is to formulate a PICOT Question. The kind of PICOT question selected is based upon what kind of patient care problem/issue you wish to resolve.

Address “Diabetes type 2 Management for Adult patients” and write a 1page APA format with references in-text citation APA format including the below info

; the following sections in the posting: (a) brief nursing situation, (b) the kind of PICOT question, and (c) the actual PICOT question.

  • Post to the discussion area a brief nursing situation, the kind of PICOT question, and the actual PICOT question using the steps as follows:
    • Step 1-Identify a nursing situation using 3rd person. No use of I statements as this is not a personal reflection of nursing care. As used here, the nursing situation specifies the problem you are attempting to resolve. Here is an example: Example Only: Mr. Jones, a 40 year-old experienced abdominal pain that transverses his abdomen. He was returning to the ER for the third time during the month with bloating and moderate pain. He has a no history of previous GI problems.The staff identifies his return as typical of a frequent flyer, though Mr. Jones states that he does not use illegal substances nor does he like to use the ER. Upon further history, Mr. Jones says he eats sushi at least three times a week.
    • Step 2-Specify the kind of PICOT Question (1-2 statements). The kind of question specifies the purpose for the review of evidence. Kinds include the following categories: intervention or therapy,etiology, diagnosis or diagnostic test, prognosis or prediction, meaning (Seethe Stillwell, Fineout-Overholt, Melnyk, & Williamson , 2010 article. View the Templates and Definitions for PICOT Questions Table, p. 60). Here is an example:Intervention or therapy is indicated that recognizes the background question o f what is the best method for accurate GI assessment and diagnosis in nonspecific GI distress.
    • Step 3-Finally, specify the PICOT Question in the correct format using the template in the 3rd column of the Templates and Definitions for PICOT Questions table. (See the Stillwell, Fineout-Overholt, Melnyk, & Williamson , 2010 article. See the Templates and Definitions for PICOT Questions Table, p. 60). Think of the PICOT as the foreground question. Not all PICOT questions include time and time is included to show the end of the project measurement. Here is an example:In adults with nonspecific GI distress (P), how does a GI pain assessment team (I) compared with usual assessment (C) affect ER recidivism (O)during a 3-month period (T).
    • Follow the directions in the discussion area. All students are required to complete an initial post and respond to one other student’s posting. The focus of the PICOT discussion is to assess the content of the PICOT question (meets template format) and whether it fits the nursing situation. In addition, other helpful comments include providing key words, a reference, or information about guidelines/and standards of practice.

attached you will find additional info on PICOT. Please let me know if you cannot open attachment

 
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Maladaptive Responses to Immune Disorders.

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Maladaptive Responses to Immune Disorders.

(Maladaptive Responses to Immune Disorders.)

Maladaptive responses to immune disorders occur when the immune system reacts inappropriately, leading to tissue damage, chronic inflammation, and various pathological conditions. One common example is autoimmunity, where the immune system mistakenly attacks the body’s own cells. Conditions like rheumatoid arthritis, type 1 diabetes, and multiple sclerosis involve such responses, resulting in chronic inflammation and tissue destruction.

Another maladaptive response is allergic reactions, where the immune system overreacts to harmless substances like pollen, food, or animal dander. This hypersensitivity can lead to conditions such as asthma, anaphylaxis, and eczema. In severe cases, these reactions can be life-threatening due to the excessive release of histamines and other inflammatory mediators.

Chronic infections also illustrate maladaptive immune responses. In cases like tuberculosis and HIV, the immune system fails to eradicate the pathogen, leading to persistent infection and ongoing immune activation. This can cause extensive tissue damage and weaken the body’s overall immune defense.

Moreover, immunodeficiency disorders, whether congenital like severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) or acquired like AIDS, represent maladaptive responses where the immune system is underactive. This results in increased susceptibility to infections and certain cancers.

Overall, maladaptive immune responses can significantly impact health by causing chronic diseases, increased infection susceptibility, and life-threatening reactions.

MSN-Nurse Practitioner work

Discussion: Maladaptive Responses to Immune Disorders

Discussion: Maladaptive Responses To Immune Disorders Maladaptive Responses To Disorders Are Compensatory Mechanisms That Ultimately Have Adverse Health Effects For Patients. For Instance, A Patient’s Allergic Reaction To Peanuts Might Lead To Anaphylac

Maladaptive responses to disorders are compensatory mechanisms that ultimately have adverse health effects for patients. For instance, a patient’s allergic reaction to peanuts might lead to anaphylactic shock, or a patient struggling with depression might develop a substance abuse problem. To properly diagnose and treat patients, advanced practice nurses must understand both the pathophysiology of disorders and potential maladaptive responses that some disorders cause.

Consider immune disorders such as HIV, psoriasis, inflammatory bowel disease, and systemic lupus E. What are resulting maladaptive responses for patients with these disorders?

To Prepare

· Review Chapter 6 and Chapter 8 in the Huether and McCance text. Reflect on the concept of maladaptive responses to disorders.

· Select two of the following immune disorders: HIV, psoriasis, inflammatory bowel disease, or systemic lupus E (SLE).

· Identify the pathophysiology of each disorder you selected. Consider the compensatory mechanisms that the disorders trigger. Then compare the resulting maladaptive and physiological responses of the two disorders.

· Select one of the following factors: genetics, gender, ethnicity, age, or behavior. Reflect on how the factor might impact your selected immune disorders.

Post a brief description of the pathophysiology of your selected immune disorders. Explain how the maladaptive and physiological responses of the two disorders differ. Finally, explain how the factor you selected might impact the pathophysiology of each disorder.

 
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Plan to Address DUIs

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Plan to Address DUIs

(Plan to Address DUIs)

M4_A2 Action Plan To Address Drunk Driving

No Plagiarism

APA format

Atleast 2 in-text citations per paragraph

3 page assignment, plus a title page and reference page totaling 5 pages

Answer all of the questions per the assignment

Assignment 2: Action Plan to Address Drunk DrivingDrunk driving is one of the largest social problems related to  alcohol use. Driving under the influence (DUI) of alcohol is involved in  40–45% of all fatal traffic accidents. As a result, legislators,  educators, and law enforcement officers are continually attempting to  find ways to prevent driving under the influence of alcohol.

Select one of the following age groups: teens (13–17 years),  college-age (18–25 years), adults (26–60 years), or seniors (61 years  and up).

For your selected age group, develop a plan to reduce driving under  the influence. The plan could include (but not be limited to)  educational, legislative, and community support; and social advertising.  Present at least three action points in your plan. Be sure to include:

The format of the plan

Who will deliver the information and how

Specific tactics used to target the selected group

Methods used to measure the success of the plan

Be sure to include an introduction and summary for your plan. Support your recommendations using authoritative sources.

Write a 2–3-page plan in Word format. Apply APA standards to citation  of sources. 

By the due date assigned, deliver your assignment to the Submissions Area.

Assignment 2 Grading Criteria   Maximum Points

Developed plan with details on format, delivery of information, and tactics.  25    Explained methods of measuring success of plan.  25  points

Aligned plan to suit target audience.  15 points

Presented logical and clearly structured information supported by authoritative sources.  15 points

Wrote  in a clear, concise, and organized manner; demonstrated ethical  scholarship in accurate representation and attribution of sources;  displayed accurate spelling, grammar, and punctuation.  20 points

Total:  100

 
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Research & Data Collection Methods

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Research & Data Collection Methods

(Research & Data Collection Methods)

Question description

Research & Data Collection Methods

The purpose of this exercise to help you think through the research methods and data collection approaches you might need if you were going to actually operationalize your project and had the resources to use these various methods. You will get that opportunity in your final CAPSTONE course but this is simply a planning exercise. Not all research projects lend themselves to every research method and data collection approach so think carefully about the method and approach you choose so that it is reasonable and realistic.

We recommend that you copy the below questions into an MS Word document, answer each question underneath.

1. State your course research project’s specific research question.

2. State whether your project would be more suitable for a qualitative, quantitative, or mixed methods approach.

a. If you use a quantitative approach, list the dependent and independent variables from your course research project’s hypothesis and provide a short explanation about how you would go about analyzing those variables.

Dependent Variable:

Independent Variable 1:

Independent Variable 2:

b. If you would choose a qualitative approach, what is your working definition of the central phenomenon or idea that you are studying? How are you going to explore this idea or phenomenon?

c. What other qualitative approaches would be useful to your study? These could include content analysis, case studies, or any other of the approaches in your week’s material. Explain the value of this approach to your research objective.

3. If you were going to conduct surveys, how would a survey contribute useful data for your course research project?

a. What is the population for your survey and what is the corresponding sample size you would need for a 95% confidence level in the survey results?

b. Provide a short discussion of how you would carry out such a survey. What process must you use to conduct any research on human research subjects?

4. Interviews or Focus Groups:

a. What special considerations must you consider when conducting interviews or focus groups?

b. Who would you want in your focus groups (what types of people as far as backgrounds, experience, education, etc.)?

c. What data could one or more focus groups contribute to your course research data collection that could not have been collected using intensive interviews?

 
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