Gastrointestinal Nursing Care Scenarios

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Gastrointestinal Nursing Care Scenarios

(Gastrointestinal Nursing Care Scenarios)

Question 1 A 42-year-old man is being treated for a peptic ulcer with ranitidine (Zantac) taken PO at bedtime. Even though few adverse effects are associated with this drug, one common adverse effect that can be severe is

A) headache
B) irritability
C) dry mouth
D) heart palpitations

Question 2 A patient on 5-FU calls the clinic and reports that he has between five and seven loose bowel movements daily. The nurse will instruct the patient to

A) treat the diarrhea with OTC medications
B) avoid protein-rich foods
C) avoid grapefruit and grapefruit juice
D) notify the clinic if the stools are black or if there is evidence of blood

Question 3 A patient has been prescribed a histamine-2 (H2) receptor antagonist for the treatment of GERD. Why are H2RAs more effective than H1 receptor antagonists in the treatment of diseases of the upper GI tract?

A) H2RAs have a longer duration of action and fewer adverse effects than H1RAs
B) The parietal cells of the stomach have H2 receptors but not H1 receptors
C) H2RAs may be administered orally and in an outpatient environment but H1RAs require intravenous administration
D) H2 receptors in the upper GI tract outnumber H1 receptors by a factor of 2:1

Question 4 To maximize the therapeutic effect of diphenoxylate HCl with atropine sulfate, the nurse will instruct the patient to take the medication

A) once a day
B) twice a day
C) every 2 hours
D) four times a day

(Gastrointestinal Nursing Care Scenarios)

Question 5 A 22-year-old male college senior has lived with a diagnosis of Crohn’s disease for several years and has undergone several courses of treatment with limited benefit. Which of the following targeted therapies has the potential to alleviate the symptoms of Crohn’s disease?

A) Tositumomab plus 131I (Bexxar)
B) Muromonab-CD3 (Orthoclone OKT3)
C) Infliximab (Remicade)
D) Eculizumab (Soliris)

Question 6 A patient has been prescribed rabeprazole (Aciphex). It will be important for the nurse to assess the patient’s drug history to determine if the patient is taking which of the following drugs?

A) Levodopa
B) Morphine
C) Digoxin
D) Dicyclomine hydrochloride

Question 7 An adult patient who has been diagnosed with a rectal tumor is scheduled to begin treatment with cisplatin. The nurse has conducted patient teaching about the possibility of nausea and vomiting. In order to reduce the patient’s risk of severe nausea, the nurse should

A) place the patient on a low-residue diet
B) ensure that the patient is NPO from midnight prior to receiving the drug
C) administer a combination of antiemetics prior to the administration of the drug
D) encourage the patient to request antiemetics if the nausea becomes unbearable

Question 8 It is determined that a patient, who is in a hepatic coma, needs a laxative. Lactulose is prescribed. Which of the following should the nurse monitor to assess the efficacy of the lactulose therapy?

A) Water levels in the colon
B) Oncotic pressure in the colon
C) Blood ammonia levels
D) Relief from symptoms

(Gastrointestinal Nursing Care Scenarios)

Question 9 A 60-year-old man has scheduled a follow-up appointment with his primary care provider stating that the omeprazole (Prilosec) which he was recently prescribed is ineffective. The patient states,“I take it as soon as I feel heartburn coming on, but it doesn’t seem to help at all.” How should the nurse best respond to this patient’s statement?

A) “It could be that Prilosec isn’t the right drug for you, so it would be best to talk this over with your care provider.”
B) “Prilosec won’t really decrease the sensation of heartburn, but it is still minimizing the damage to your throat and stomach that can be caused by the problem.”
C) “Prilosec will help your heartburn but it’s not designed to provide immediate relief of specific episodes of heartburn.”
D) “A better strategy is to take a dose of Prilosec 15 to 30 minutes before meals or drinks that cause you to get heartburn.”

Question 10 A 33-year-old woman has irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). The physician has prescribed simethicone (Mylicon) for her discomfort.Which of the following will the nurse monitor most closely during the patient’s drug therapy?

A) Drug toxicity
B) Anorexia
C) Increased abdominal pain and vomiting
D) Increased urine output

Question 11 Mr. Tan is a 69-year-old man who prides himself in maintaining an active lifestyle and a healthy diet that includes adequate fluid intake. However, Mr. Tan states that he has experienced occasional constipation in recent months. What remedy should be the nurse’s first suggestion?

A) Bismuth subsalicylate
B) A bulk-forming (fiber) laxative
C) A stimulant laxative
D) A hyperosmotic laxative

Question 12 A 29-year-old woman has been prescribed alosetron (Lotronex) for irritable bowel syndrome. Before starting the drug therapy, the nurse will advise the patient about which of the following adverse effect(s)?

A) Constipation
B) Breathlessness and hypotension
C) Hyperthyroidism
D) Impaired cardiac function

(Gastrointestinal Nursing Care Scenarios)

Question 13 A 29-year-old female patient has been prescribed orlistat (Xenical) for morbid obesity. The nurse is providing patient education concerning the drug. An important instruction to the patient would be to

A) omit the dose if the meal does not contain fat
B) take orlistat and multivitamins together
C) take orlistat in one dose at breakfast
D) omit the dose if the meal does not contain protein

Question 14 Prior to administering a dose of 5-FU to a patient with pancreatic cancer, the nurse is conducting the necessary drug research. The nurse is aware that 5-FU is a cell cycle–specific chemotherapeutic agent. Which of the following statements best describes cell cycle–specific drugs?

A) They follow a specific sequence of cytotoxic events in order to achieve cell death
B) They affect cancerous cells during a particular phase of cellular reproduction
C) They achieve a synergistic effect when administered in combination with cell cycle–nonspecific drugs
D) They affect cancerous cells and normal body cells in a similar manner

Question 15 A patient with a long history of alcohol abuse has been admitted to an acute medical unit with signs and symptoms of hepatic encephalopathy. His current medication orders include QID doses of oral lactulose. What desired outcomes should the nurse associate with this drug order?

A) Patient will have three to four loose bowel movements each day
B) Patient will express relief from constipation
C) Patient will have formed bowel movements that do not contain frank or occult blood
D) Patient will express an understanding of his current bowel regimen

Question 16 A nurse is assessing a female patient who is taking diphenoxylate HCl with atropine sulfate. Which of the following would lead the nurse to suspect that she is experiencing an allergic reaction?

A) Numbness of extremities
B) Headache and lethargy
C) Toxic megacolon
D) Urticaria

(Gastrointestinal Nursing Care Scenarios)

Question 17 A 73-year-old woman has scheduled an appointment with her nurse practitioner to discuss her recurrent constipation. The woman states that she experiences constipation despite the fact that she takes docusate on a daily basis and performs cleansing enemas several times weekly.How should the nurse best respond to this patient’s statements?

A) “Because we become more prone to constipation as we age, you’ll likely need to increase the number of stool softeners you take.”
B) “I’ll refer you to a specialist because it could be that you have a disease affecting your bowels or stomach.”
C) “Taking too many laxatives can make your bowels dependent on them, making you more susceptible to constipation.”
D) “Try using a different over-the-counter laxative and see that if you resolves your problem.”

Question 18 A patient develops diarrhea secondary to antibiotic therapy. He is to receive two tablets of diphenoxylate HCl with atropine sulfate (Lomotil) orally as needed for each loose stool. The nurse should inform him that he may experience

A) dizziness
B) bradycardia
C) muscle aches
D) increase in appetite

Question 19 A patient who takes aluminum hydroxide with magnesium hydroxide (Mylanta) frequently for upset stomach, heartburn, and sour stomach is seen regularly in the clinic. The nurse should assess which of the following?

A) Blood glucose level
B) Serum phosphate level
C) Urine specific gravity
D) Aspartate transaminase levels

Question 20 A teenage boy has undergone a diagnostic workup following several months of persistent, bloody diarrhea that appears to lack an infectious etiology. The boy has also experienced intermittent abdominal pain and has lost almost 15 pounds this year. Which of the following medications is most likely to treat this boy’s diagnosis?

A) Lubiprostone
B) Mesalamine
C) Docusate
D) Bismuth subsalicylate

Question 21 Mesalamine (Asacol) is prescribed for a 22-year-old woman with Crohn disease. The nurse will discuss with the patient the possibility for which of the following adverse effects related to the new drug therapy?

A) Hair loss
B) Metallic taste
C) Fatigue
D) Increased appetite

(Gastrointestinal Nursing Care Scenarios)

Question 22 A 58-year-old man is prescribed dicyclomine (Bentyl) for irritable bowel syndrome. In which of the following conditions is dicyclomine therapy contraindicated?

A) Hypertension
B) Diabetes mellitus
C) Glaucoma
D) Rheumatoid arthritis

Question 23 A nurse is planning care for a 59-year-old woman who is on ranitidine therapy. The nurse is concerned for the patient’s safety.Which of the following would be an appropriate nursing diagnosis?

A) Diarrhea related to adverse effects of drug therapy
B) Acute Pain related to adverse drug effects, headache
C) Risk for Injury related to drug-induced somnolence, dizziness, confusion, or hallucinations
D) Potential Complication: Electrolyte Imbalance related to hypophosphatemia, secondary to drug therapy

Question 24 A 57-year-old man is to begin 5-FU therapy for colon cancer. It will be most important for the nurse to monitor which of the following during the first 72 hours of the initial treatment cycle?

A) Myelosuppression
B) Cardiac events
C) White blood cell nadir
D) Nausea and vomiting

Question 25 A patient is taking cholestyramine. The nurse will assess for which of the following common adverse effects of the drug?

A) Abdominal pain
B) Headache
C) Constipation
D) Indigestion

Question 26 A patient comes to the clinic asking for help to quit drinking alcohol. She has a 21-year history of heavy drinking and is worried about developing cirrhosis of the liver. The patient agrees to take disulfiram (Antabuse). The nurse will teach the patient that the combination of alcohol and Antabuse will cause which of the following?

A) Bradycardia
B) Diarrhea
C) Nausea
D) Slight headache

Question 27 A 52-year-old man is suffering from a deficiency of exocrine pancreatic secretions and is prescribed pancrelipase (Pancrease MT). Before the medication therapy begins, the nurse will assess for allergies related to

A) ragweed
B) pollen
C) pork
D) shellfish

(Gastrointestinal Nursing Care Scenarios)

Question 28 A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a patient who will be taking fludrocortisone at home. The nurse will encourage the patient to eat a diet that is

A) low in sodium and potassium
B) low in sodium, high in potassium
C) high in iron
D) low in proteins

Question 29 A nurse is aware that diphenoxylate HCl with atropine sulfate is an effective adjunct in the treatment of diarrhea. For which of the following patients could the administration of this drug be potentially harmful?

A) An 80-year-old man who has diarrhea secondary to Clostridium difficile infection
B) A woman who has experienced severe diarrhea associated with influenza
C) A man who has experienced diarrhea shortly after beginning tube feeding through a nasogastric tube
D) A 60-year-old woman who tends to get diarrhea during periods of intense stress

Question 30 A clinic nurse is planning care for a 68-year-old man who has been on omeprazole (Prilosec) therapy for heartburn for some time. Regarding the patient’s safety, which of the following would be a priority nursing action?

A) Teach the patient to take omeprazole 1 hour before meals
B) Emphasize that the drug should not be crushed or chewed
C) Coordinate bone density testing for the patient
D) Monitor the patient for the development of diarrhea

Question 31 A nurse is overseeing the care of a young man whose ulcerative colitis is being treated with oral prednisone. Which of the following actions should the nurse take in order to minimize the potential for adverse drug effects and risks associated with prednisone treatment?

A) Avoid OTC antacids for the duration of treatment
B) Advocate for intravenous, rather than oral, administration
C) Teach the patient strategies for dealing with headaches
D) Carefully assess the patient for infections

Question 32 A woman with numerous chronic health problems has been diagnosed with a benign gastric ulcer has begun treatment with ranitidine (Zantac). Which of the following teaching points should the nurse provide to this patient?

A) “Quitting smoking will significantly increase the chance that this drug will heal your ulcer.”
B) “This drug will help to eliminate the bacteria in your stomach that caused your ulcer.”
C) “You should eat several small meals each day rather than three larger meals.”
D) “Take each dose of ranitidine with an antacid of your choice.”

(Gastrointestinal Nursing Care Scenarios)

Question 33 A patient has GERD and is taking ranitidine (Zantac). She continues to have gastric discomfort and asks whether she can take an antacid. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?

A) “Sure, you may take an antacid with ranitidine.”
B) “No, the two drugs will work against each other.”
C) “Yes, but be sure to wait at least 2 hours to take the antacid after you take the ranitidine.”
D) “I wouldn’t advise it. You may experience severe constipation.”

Question 34 A woman with an inflammatory skin disorder has begun taking prednisone in an effort to control the signs and symptoms of her disease. The nurse who is providing care for this patient should prioritize which of the following potential nursing diagnoses in the organization of the patient’s care?

A) Fluid Volume Excess
B) Constipation
C) Acute Confusion
D) Impaired Gas Exchange

Question 35 Following an endoscopy, a 66-year-old man has been diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer resulting from Helicobacter pylori infection. Which of the following medications will likely be used in an attempt to eradicate the patient’s H. pylori infection? (Select all that apply.)is situation?

A) A PPI
B) Antibiotics
C) Cisapride (Propulsid)
D) Aluminum hydroxide

 
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Managing Conflict & Behavior Issues

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Managing Conflict & Behavior Issues

(Managing Conflict & Behavior Issues)

Isaac has worked as a staff nurse on the telemetry floor for over 15 years. He holds seniority in the unit. His patient care is satisfactory; however, his interpersonal behaviors are becoming an increasing issue for his coworkers. He throws papers around the unit, gives short answers to questions, and seems generally miserable. He tells the staff that they are lazy and stupid. He is constantly questioning their decisions. You have come from another local hospital in the role of the assistant nurse manager. Based on your observations, you have met with Isaac informally and discussed his behaviors, but they have not changed. Now three new nurses have already come to you saying that this unit is a great match for them, except for one problem. Although they have not identified Isaac by name, they have told you that one of the nurses is extremely abusive verbally, and they have been calling in sick on the days they are scheduled to work with this person.

1. What are your responsibilities as an assistant nurse manager in regard to Isaac’s behavior problem?

2. What is the next step in dealing with Isaac’s behaviors?

3. How will you, as the manager, have Isaac develop more effective people skills?

This is your first position as a nurse manager. The holidays are rapidly approaching, and the hospital policy states that each unit will negotiate holiday coverage individually. You are already getting requests via e-mail and on Post-it notes for holiday time. Several staff members have come to you stating that they “never” seem to get their requests for holidays. Discussion among the staff members is creating dissension and conflict.

1. Discuss the potential impact of this problem on you and the unit staff.

2. Describe a minimum of one positive consequence and one negative consequence of this conflict.

3. Select a model of conflict resolution and explain how you, as a nurse manager, might resolve this conflict.

–APA Format.

-Introduction or abstract page

-Summary or Conclusion page

–Four Pages Minimum, not included Introduction or abstract, Conclusion or Summary , and Bibliographic pages.

–Completely unacceptable Copy and Paste from Internet, or other resources.

– Bibliographic have to be in APA Format, minimum 3 references citations with 3 years old  or less.

 
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Assignment2: Methodology-PTSD

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Assignment2: Methodology-PTSD

(Assignment2: Methodology-PTSD)

All papers are written for PTSD

In your final paper for this course, you will need to write a Methods section that is about 3–4 pages long where you will assess and evaluate the methods and analysis of your proposed research.

In preparation for this particular section, answer the following questions thoroughly and provide justification/support. The more complete and detailed your answers for these questions, the better prepared you are to successfully write your final paper:

  • What is the problem being      addressed by your research study?
  • State the refined research      question and hypothesis (null and alternative).
  • What are your independent and      dependent variables? What are their operational definitions?
  • Who will be included in your      sample (i.e., inclusion and exclusion characteristics)?
  • How many participants will you      have in your sample?
  • How will you recruit your      sample?
  • Identify the type of      measurement instrument to be used to collect the raw numeric data to be      statistically analyzed and the type of measurement data the instrument      produces.
  • What issues will you cover in      the informed consent?
  • If there is potential risk or harm, how will you ensure the safety of all participants?
  • Name any possible threats to      validity and steps that can be taken to minimize these threats.
  • What type of parametric or      nonparametric inferential statistical process (correlation, difference, or      effect) will you use in your proposed research? Why is this statistical      test the best fit?
  • State an acceptable behavioral      research alpha level you would use to fail to accept or fail to reject the      stated null hypothesis and explain your choice.

This paper may be written in question-and-answer format rather than a flowing paper. Write your response in a 3- to 4-page Microsoft Word document.

All written assignments and responses should follow APA rules for attributing sources.

Submission Details:

  • By Wednesday, September      27, 2017, save your document as M4_A2_Lastname_Firstname.doc and      submit it to the M4 Assignment 2 Dropbox.

Assignment 2 Grading   Criteria

Maximum Points

Stated the problem   being addressed.

Stated the refined   research question and hypothesis (null and alternative).

Stated the independent   and dependent variables and provided the operational definitions.

Discussed sample   characteristics and size.

Discussed a sample   recruitment strategy.

Identified the type of   measurement instrument to be used and the type of measurement data the   instrument produces.

Discussed the informed   consent and potential risk and protection factors.

Named the possible   threats to validity and steps that can be taken to minimize these threats.

Discussed the type of   parametric or nonparametric inferential statistical process that will be used   and why it is a best fit.

Stated an acceptable   behavioral research alpha level for analyzing the data.

Wrote in a clear,   concise, and organized manner; demonstrated ethical scholarship in accurate   representation and attribution of sources; displayed accurate spelling,   grammar, and punctuation.

Total:

100

 
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Christian Ethics in Medical Decisions

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Christian Ethics in Medical Decisions

(Christian Ethics in Medical Decisions)

Write a 1,200-1,500 word analysis of “Case Study: Healing and Autonomy.” In light of the readings, be sure to address the following questions:

  1. Under the Christian narrative and Christian vision, what sorts of issues are most pressing in this case study?
  2. Should the physician allow Mike to continue making decisions that seem to him to be irrational and harmful to James?
  3. According to the Christian narrative and the discussion of the issues of treatment refusal, patient autonomy, and organ donation in the topic readings, how might one analyze this case?
  4. According to the topic readings and lecture, how ought the Christian think about sickness and health? What should Mike as a Christian do? How should he reason about trusting God and treating James?

Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.

This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin. Please refer to the directions in the Student Success Center.

RUBRIC:

Identification of Ethical Issues and Christian Principles and Values

Ethical issues along with Christian principles and values pertaining to the case study are identified. Any apparent tensions between religious autonomy and physician recommendation are acknowledged.

Analysis of Ethical Issues and Christian Principles and Values

The analysis of the application of the Christian Worldview principles regarding the ethical issues is excellent in reaching a viable conclusion. An accurate biblical perspective with detailed interaction with the biblical text regarding medicine is clearly discussed, along with how it relates to the issue of healing.

Thesis Development and Purpose

Thesis and/or main claim are comprehensive. The essence of the paper is contained within the thesis. Thesis statement makes the purpose of the paper clear.

Argument Logic and Construction

Clear and convincing argument presents a persuasive claim in a distinctive and compelling manner. All sources are authoritative.

Mechanics of Writing (includes spelling, punctuation, grammar, language use)

Writer is clearly in command of standard, written, academic English.

Paper Format (use of appropriate style for the major and assignment)

All format elements are correct

Documentation of Sources (citations, footnotes, references, bibliography, etc., as appropriate to assignment and style)

Sources are completely and correctly documented, as appropriate to assignment and style, and format is free of error.

100 %Total Weightage

 
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Midterm Pathophysiology Exam Solutions

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Midterm Pathophysiology Exam Solutions

(Midterm Pathophysiology Exam Solutions)

NR 507 Midterm Exam (Version 10 Solutions)

1. Question: What is the most abundant class of plasma protein?

2. Question: Carcinoma in situ is characterized by which changes?

3. Question: Which laboratory test is considered adequate for an accurate and reliable diagnosis of gonococcal urethritis in a symptomatic man?

4. Question: The Papanicolaou (Pap) test is used to screen for which cancer?

5. Question: Causes of hyperkalemia include:

6. Question: What is the major concern regarding the treatment of gonococci infections?

7. Question: Hypersensitivity is best defined as a(an):

8. Question: Which immunoglobulin (Ig) is present in childhood asthma?

9. Question: Which criterion is used to confirm a diagnosis of asthma in an 8-year-old child?

10. Question: Continuous increases in left ventricular filing pressures result in which disorder?

11. Question: Which statement best describes a Schilling test?

12. Question: How high does the plasma glucose have to be before the threshold for glucose is achieved?

13. Question: What is the ratio of coronary capillaries to cardiac muscle cells?

14. Question: Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function?

15. Question: Which congenital heart defects occur in trisomy 13, trisomy 18, and Down syndrome?

16. Question: Which of the following is classified as a megaloblastic anemia?

17. Question: The lung is innervated by the parasympathetic nervous system via which nerve?

18. Question: Which organ is stimulated during the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS)?

19. Question: Which type of antibody is involved in type I hypersensitivity reaction?

(Midterm Pathophysiology Exam Solutions)

20. Question: What is the life span of an erythrocyte (in days)?

21. Question: What is the life span of platelets (in days)?

22. Question: Perceived stress elicits an emotional, anticipatory response that begins where?

23. Question: What is the final stage of the infectious process?

24. Question: The coronary ostia are located in the:

25. Question: Which hepatitis virus is known to be sexually transmitted?

26. Question: What process allows the kidney to respond to an increase in workload?

27. Question: Which cardiac chamber has the thinnest wall and why?

28. Question: Which hormone is synthesized and secreted by the kidneys?

29. Question: If the sinoatrial (SA) node fails, then at what rate (depolarizations per minute) can the atrioventricular (AV) node depolarize?

30. Question: What is the purpose of the spirometry measurement?

31. Question: Fetal hematopoiesis occurs in which structure?

32. Question: What effects do exercise and body position have on renal blood flow?

33. Question: Which primary characteristic is unique for the immune response?

34. Question: What is the most common cause of insufficient erythropoiesis in children?

35. Question: What are the abnormalities in cytokines found in children with cystic fibrosis (CF)?

36. Question: Decreased lung compliance means that the lungs are demonstrating which characteristic?

37. Question: What is the action of urodilatin?

38. Question: The function of the foramen ovale in a fetus allows what to occur?

39. Question: Examination of the throat in a child demonstrating signs and symptoms of acute epiglottitis may contribute to which life-threatening complication?

(Midterm Pathophysiology Exam Solutions)

40. Question: Which statement concerning benign tumors is true?

41. Question: What is the role of collagen in the clotting process?

42. Question: What effect do natriuretic peptides have during heart failure when the heart dilates?

43. Question: Which cells have phagocytic properties similar to monocytes and contract like smooth muscles cells, thereby influencing the glomerular filtration rate?

44. Question: During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, which leukocyte is activated?

45. Question: The most common site of metastasis for a patient diagnosed with prostate cancer is which location?

46. Question: Research supports the premise that exercise has a probable impact on reducing the risk of which cancer?

47. Question: When a patient has small, vesicular lesions that last between 10 and 20 days, which sexually transmitted infection is suspected?

48. Question: The glomerular filtration rate is directly related to which factor?

49. Question: Which disorder results in decreased erythrocytes and platelets with changes in leukocytes and has clinical manifestations of pallor, fatigue, petechiae, purpura, bleeding, and fever?

50. Question: Which complex (wave) represents the sum of all ventricular muscle cell depolarizations?

51. Question: Which cytokines initiate the production of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)?

52. Question: Innervation of the bladder and internal urethral sphincter is supplied by which nerves?

53. Question: Which T-lymphocyte phenotype is the key determinant of childhood asthma?

54. Question: What is the primary site for uncomplicated local gonococci infections in men?

55. Question: What is the trigone?

56. Question: What part of the kidney controls renal blood flow, glomerular filtration, and renin secretion?

57. Question: What is the primary problem resulting from respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn?

58. Question: Infants are most susceptible to significant losses in total body water because of an infant’s:

59. Question: What is the first stage in the infectious process?

60. Question: It has been determined that a tumor is in stage 2. What is the meaning of this finding?

 
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Evaluating SelfHelp Group Effectiveness

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Evaluating SelfHelp Group Effectiveness

(Evaluating SelfHelp Group Effectiveness)

The self-help movement has swept the world of substance abuse treatment. A new client may not be aware of any treatment options open to them aside from those of self-help group meetings, such as Alcoholics Anonymous. While self-help groups are not a solution for every client, they have been shown to be useful in some cases.

As future substance abuse counselors, it is important that you explore and be aware of the different self-help groups and what goes on in these group meetings.

Begin this assignment by doing the following:

Attend a self-help group related to substance abuse. There are multiple options including AA Open Meetings, Al-Anon, Women for Sobriety, and so forth. Information is easily accessible on the Internet. Note that some meetings are closed while others are open. At Alcoholics Anonymous (AA), most weekly groups are closed; however, open meetings are held primarily on weekends when all are welcome to attend.

Information for your area can be obtained through “AA Intergroup” at http://aa-intergroup.org/.

Introduce yourself and let folks know that you are a student. Remember to follow the guidelines of confidentiality.

If you are unable to access a twelve-step group because one is not available in your area, either research an online self-help group or research the implications of self-help groups in general including their strengths and weaknesses.

Write a paper about your experience and make sure you cover the following:

  1. Evaluate the self-help group you attended and/or researched. Critique the strengths and weaknesses of self-help groups in terms of their value in the treatment of substance abuse.
  2. Hypothesize what types of clients would be a good match for the group that you attended and/or researched. What types of clients would not be a good match? Consider age, gender, culture, race, sexuality, religion/spirituality, and the severity of substance abuse. Include other evaluation criteria for differential treatment. Explain your reasoning.
  3. Predict how self-help groups are evolving over time. How can technology be used to supplement and/or replace face-to-face support groups?
  4. Appraise the effect on the group experience when involuntary clients are present. Include the effect to treatment, counseling, and collaboration.
  5. Recommend several ways to overcome resistance. How may technology be used to overcome resistance to treatment? Include collaboration issues involved in the treatment of involuntary clients using technology.
 
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Stakeholder Perception Evaluation Tool

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Stakeholder Perception Evaluation Tool

(Stakeholder Perception Evaluation Tool)

Question description

Development, Construction, and Content Validation of questionnaires to understand the perception of the stakeholders.

Scenario:

I am a COO of a non-for-profit. I need to perform an evaluation questionnaire within several key specific areas to understand the possible reasons why referral rates both from inside and outside the organization are stagnant.

HHCS is a non-for-profit healthcare organization that offers 5 programs including H-hospice, H-home health, H-kids care, H-PACE, and H-connections.

The questionnaires need to be an assessment tool, which are based on a specific nursing model, backed up by a nursing theory, supported by an illustrated design.

The questionnaires must only yield Quantitative data (absolutely no qualitative data).

The composer of the questionnaires must include a scholarly paper 5 – 6 pages in length that includes an introduction, the described problem, a literature review (of at least 10 scholarly articles), described the nursing model used to develop the questionnaires, the nursing theory supporting the use of the questionnaires, discuss why the questionnaires are needed, propose and evaluative tool for post-data collection, and provide a conclusion.

Make sure to include:

  1. Prevalence of the problem/Significance/Relevance to practice
  2. Purpose statement and project objectives
  3. Implications for change in practice
  4. Theoretical framework or conceptual model guiding evidence based practice
  5. Evidence based literature review

The scholarly article must be in APA format.

The questionnaires must be presented in a table format.

Problem: The organization is having trouble obtaining referrals from all areas of opportunity inside and outside of the organization. This has been attributed the company brand HHCS, which stands for H- Healthcare services being traditionally a hospice organizations. However, in the last 5 years, the organization has included the other 4 programs described above. The problem is that staff members, directors, managers, social workers the local largest hospital, and the public still relates the HHCS logo with H-hospice.

Goal: To develop 8 questionnaires specifically designed around the stakeholders involved. Each of the stake holders should have 5 common “general questions”, and 5 discipline specific questions.

The development of the questionnaires is aimed at understanding the knowledge of the stakeholders in regards to the 5 different programs offered at HHCS, and trying to understand why they are not referring patients/clients/relatives into the programs.

Stakeholders:

Admission RNs

Social Workers

Nursing Managers

Nursing Directors

Physicians (outside of the organization)

Physicians (inside of the organization)

Case Managers (inside of the organization)

The public (outside of the organization).

Specific Questionnaires:

Questionnaire for admission RNs (inside of the organization).

Questionnaire for Social workers (inside the organization).

Questionnaire for nursing managers (inside the organization).

Questionnaire for nursing directors (inside the organization).

Questionnaire for physicians (inside the organization).

Questionnaire for physicians (outside the organizations).

Questionnaire for hospital Case Managers that discharge patients (outside of the organizations).

Questionnaire for the public (outside of the organization).

Questionnaire sample tentative questions, general and specific (sample sample sample)

General Questionnaire:

Are you aware that HHCS provides multiple programs?

Have you referred a friend/patient/client to HHCS to be evaluated for eligibility into one of our programs?

Are your aware of the criteria needed to be met for each individual program at HHCS?

Are you able to locate literature that explains the criteria needed to be eligible for admission into our programs?

Questionnaire for admission RNs:

In the last 6 months have you evaluated a patient to be taken under HHCS’s hospice services that did not meet criteria?

In the last six months have you referred a patient that was not taken into hospice care to another one of HHC’s programs?

 
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Assignment3: Measures of Crime

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Assignment3: Measures of Crime

(Assignment3: Measures of Crime)

Measuring crime can be a difficult process. By its very nature, crime is something that goes undetected. Law enforcement has developed a variety of techniques to track crime, such as police reports and victim reports. The Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) uses the Uniform Crime Reporting (UCR) Program for tracking crime; it reports crime in more than one way. All crime reporting and tracking systems categorize crime and have certain limitations.

Measuring crime involves tracking statistics such as demographic information and moderator variables related to the crimes. Moderator variables are any third variable in a correlation that affects the relationship between the first two variables. For example, we may find that gender is related to violent crime with a higher percentage of males engaging in violent behavior. However, a moderator variable would be age, with the highest percentage of violent offenders being below the age of 30.

Research US crime statistics using the Argosy University online library resources and the Internet. You can also use the following:

Select a crime and write a report addressing the following:

  • Summarize the statistics from the last two reporting years. Be sure to include demographic information such as ethnicity, race, age, gender, marital status, employment status, socioeconomic group, etc., and moderator variables related to the crime.
  • Examine the reliability and validity of these statistics. Are they accurate? Why or why not? Be sure to discuss how age, gender, race, ethnicity, and socioeconomic level are related to offending and representation in the criminal justice system.
  • Explain whether certain populations are overrepresented in the statistics. If so, why?

Use the textbook and peer-reviewed sources to support your arguments.

Write a 2–3-page report in Word format. Apply APA standards to citation of sources. Use the following file naming convention: LastnameFirstInitial_M1_A3.doc. For example, if your name is John Smith, your document will be named SmithJ_M1_A3.doc.

By the due date assigned, deliver your assignment to the Submissions Area.

Assignment 3 Grading Criteria Maximum PointsSummarized statistics for the previous two reporting years including demographic information.20Explained the accuracy, reliability, and validity of the statistics14Discussed how age, gender, race, ethnicity, and socioeconomic level are related to offending and representation in the criminal justice system.14Analyzed the statistics to determine whether certain populations are over-represented.32Provided well-researched, authoritative sources in support of the arguments.12Wrote in a clear, concise, and organized manner; demonstrated ethical scholarship in accurate representation and attribution of sources; displayed accurate spelling, grammar, and punctuation.

 
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Resolving Aviation Maintenance Challenges

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Resolving Aviation Maintenance Challenges

(Resolving Aviation Maintenance Challenges)

Aviation maintenance faces several challenges, including the need for regulatory compliance, managing aging aircraft, labor shortages, and integrating new technologies. Ensuring airworthiness while balancing operational costs demands a proactive approach. One key solution is adopting predictive maintenance through data analytics. By leveraging aircraft sensors and real-time data, airlines can identify potential issues before they escalate, reducing downtime and repair costs.

Additionally, workforce development is essential to address labor shortages. Partnerships with technical schools, apprenticeships, and ongoing training programs can cultivate skilled technicians. The use of advanced technologies such as augmented reality (AR) for troubleshooting and virtual simulations for training also improves efficiency and accuracy.

Compliance with safety regulations can be streamlined through digital tools that automate documentation and track regulatory updates. Investing in sustainable maintenance practices, like environmentally friendly materials and repair methods, supports industry-wide efforts to reduce carbon emissions.

Resolving Aviation Maintenance Challenges

For this activity, you will assume the role of an aviation maintenance manager. As the aviation maintenance manager, you are responsible for all maintenance actions and for maintaining aircraft in a serviceable condition. For this assignment, conduct research to identify a current aviation maintenance challenge/issue. In your briefing, you will identify the maintenance issue and provide a maintenance strategy to correct the maintenance issue.

Your presentation must include a minimum of five, but no more than eight, slides not including the title slide or reference slide, have embedded audio, and include speaker notes.

Keep in mind that as a minimum your presentation must:

  • Identify a current aviation maintenance issue of your choosing.
  • Explain the impact of the maintenance issue.
  • Define how scheduled maintenance cycles can be used as part of your strategy in addressing the issue.
  • Determine and support the role of a reliability program in ensuring that your strategy corrects the issue.
 
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Nursing Quiz (with answers)

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Nursing Quiz

Question description

1.Discuss the differences between a leader and a manager.
A leader inspires, motivates, and influences others towards a common vision or goal. Leaders focus on people, developing trust and fostering innovation. They are visionary, often driving change and fostering a collaborative environment.
A manager, on the other hand, focuses on processes, structures, and tasks. Managers aim to ensure efficiency and organization by overseeing operations, planning, and problem-solving. They work within established systems to achieve specific goals and maintain order. While leaders prioritize inspiring others, managers emphasize control, coordination, and maintaining smooth functioning.
Nursing Quiz (with answers)

2. Which is more important, working for an effective leader or an effective manager? Explain your answer.

While both are important, working for an effective leader may have a more significant long-term impact. An effective leader can inspire teams to exceed expectations, adapt to changes, and foster a positive work culture. Leadership emphasizes personal growth, team cohesion, and innovation, which are crucial for long-term success. An effective manager ensures daily tasks are completed efficiently but may not always inspire teams to push beyond their limits. (Nursing Quiz (with answers))

 

3. Observe the nurse manager in a unit to which students have been assigned. What management style is displayed? How does the staff respond to this style

During clinical rotations, nursing students often observe nurse managers exhibiting different management styles, such as autocratic, democratic, or laissez-faire. The staff’s response often depends on the style. For example, in a democratic management style, the team may show greater engagement and satisfaction because their input is valued. In an autocratic style, staff might feel more restricted but the unit can function with strict adherence to rules.

 

4. What qualities do you think are most important to be a good nurse manager?

To be a good nurse manager, key qualities include strong communication skills, empathy, adaptability, decision-making abilities, and leadership qualities. Additionally, a nurse manager should be able to mentor and support staff, promoting a positive work environment and ensuring high-quality patient care.

Nursing Quiz (with answers)

1. Interview the nurse manager on your assignment unit. What interpersonal, decisional, and informational activities does he or she complete on a daily basis?

A nurse manager’s daily activities include:

  • Interpersonal: Building relationships with staff, mediating conflicts, and providing feedback.
  • Decisional: Making staffing decisions, managing the budget, and addressing unit challenges.
  • Informational: Disseminating policy updates, communicating with the healthcare team, and staying informed on patient outcomes and institutional goals.

2. You are the nurse manager on your unit. One of the most experienced staffers has been out on sick leave, and another just had a baby. The rest of the staff are working very hard to pick up the slack to avoid using agency personnel. What tangible and intangible rewards might you use to thank the staff?

To thank staff for hard work, a nurse manager might offer:

  • Tangible rewards: Bonuses, additional paid time off, or gift cards.
  • Intangible rewards: Public recognition, verbal appreciation, or flexible scheduling.

3. PART 1: Begin by writing a 50-word description of the ideal nurse manger, someone you would like to work for. Describe a real-life nurse manager whom you have encountered in one of your clinical rotations. What qualities of this person meet your ideal? In what ways does this individual not meet your ideal? (Reminder: nobody’s perfect.)

The ideal nurse manager is supportive, approachable, and fosters teamwork. They balance leadership with empathy, ensuring both staff and patient needs are met. During my clinical rotation, I observed a nurse manager who was exceptionally organized and focused but lacked strong interpersonal connections with the staff. This did not meet my ideal of a manager who fosters both personal and professional growth.

 

PART 2: Think about becoming an ideal manager yourself. What qualities of an ideal manager do you already possess? What qualities do you still need to develop? How will you accomplish this?

I possess strong communication skills and empathy, both essential for an ideal manager. However, I need to develop better decision-making abilities and adapt to high-pressure situations more effectively. I will achieve this by seeking mentorship, attending leadership workshops, and gaining more experience in supervisory roles. (Nursing Quiz (with answers))

 

1. Find your own state’s requirements for informed consent. Do elective procedures and emergency situations use the same standard?

Informed consent requirements vary by state, but generally, elective procedures require detailed discussions with patients about risks, benefits, and alternatives. Emergency situations may allow for implied consent if the patient cannot give consent and immediate intervention is necessary to save a life.

 

2. Obtain a copy of your state’s Nurse Practice Act. Does the act give adequate guidance for nurses to know if an action is within the scope of nursing practice?

The Nurse Practice Act provides a framework that helps nurses understand their scope of practice, including professional boundaries, decision-making authority, and delegation. It serves as a guide to ensure safe and ethical nursing care, tailored to each state’s regulatory environment.

 

1. Explain how the Nurse Practice Act in your state provides for consumer protection and for professional nursing progress.

The Nurse Practice Act ensures consumer protection by outlining the legal scope of practice for nurses, preventing unqualified individuals from providing unsafe care. It promotes professional progress by establishing continuing education requirements and supporting evidence-based practice.

 

2. What are your thoughts on multistate licensure? How does it strengthen and weaken professional nursing?

Multistate licensure enhances nursing mobility, allowing nurses to practice across state lines, which can address nursing shortages. However, it also presents challenges, such as differing state regulations and maintaining consistency in quality of care.

(Nursing Quiz (with answers))

3. As a new nurse, how can you ensure confidentiality in clinical settings?

To ensure confidentiality in clinical settings, a new nurse can follow guidelines such as keeping patient records secure, only discussing patient information with authorized personnel, and avoiding sharing information in public areas. Additionally, nurses must refrain from sharing identifiable patient information on social media or any other public platform.

 

4. How can nurses safeguard the confidentiality of medical information when sending it by fax or e-mail?

To safeguard the confidentiality of medical information sent by fax or email, nurses should use secure methods like encryption and password protection. Fax machines should be located in secure areas, and emails must be sent through secure, encrypted systems. Verifying the recipient’s information before sending is crucial to avoid any unauthorized access.

 

5. Explain the role of the nurse in obtaining informed consent. Do you believe that this is within the scope of nursing practice? Explain your answer.

Nurses play a supportive role in the informed consent process. They ensure that the patient understands the information provided by the physician, clarify any questions, and witness the patient’s signature. While obtaining informed consent is generally the responsibility of the physician, nurses ensure that the patient is informed and comfortable with the decision. Many believe this role is within the scope of nursing, as it aligns with patient advocacy and education.

(Nursing Quiz (with answers))

6. Should nurses carry malpractice insurance? Explain your answer.

Yes, nurses should carry malpractice insurance. Although many healthcare facilities provide coverage, individual malpractice insurance offers additional protection in case the facility’s insurance doesn’t fully cover a claim or if a nurse is sued independently. This coverage ensures that nurses are financially protected, especially in high-risk environments where liability may be higher.

 

7. Should all patients have advance directives? Explain your answer.

Yes, all patients should have advance directives. These documents provide clear instructions about a patient’s healthcare preferences in case they become unable to communicate their wishes. This ensures that care aligns with the patient’s values and reduces the burden on family members and healthcare providers in making difficult decisions during critical situations.

 

8. Should employers be permitted to require nurses to work overtime if there is a shortage of registered nursing staff on a unit? Support your answer with evidence from the literature

The issue of mandatory overtime is controversial. Evidence shows that mandatory overtime can lead to nurse burnout, decreased job satisfaction, and potential errors due to fatigue, compromising patient safety. Research suggests that instead of relying on mandatory overtime, healthcare facilities should focus on adequate staffing and retention strategies to meet patient care needs without overburdening the workforce. Therefore, employers should avoid mandating overtime, as it can harm both nurses and patients.
(Nursing Quiz (with answers))

References

American Nurses Association. (n.d.). Informed Consent.  https://www.nursingworld.org/practice-policy/nursing-excellence/official-position-statements/id/informed-consent/

National Council of State Boards of Nursing. (n.d.). Nurse Licensure Compact (NLC).  https://www.ncsbn.org/nurse-licensure-compact.htm

 
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