Anatomy And Physiology 1( BIOL 2401)

Biol 2401
Case Study 3
Dr. Kelly Sexton
TIA OR STROKE?

 

You are a neurologist at a major urban hospital. A 63 year-old stroke victim is brought to you for your neurological assessment. This patient suffered a stroke after several occlusions of branches of one of the cerebral arteries. A series of cognitive, sensory and motor tests reveal the following signs and symptoms.

The patient has completely lost the perception of the somatic senses (somatosensation) from the right side of his jaw, face and tongue. There is only minor diminishment in somatosensation from his right hand and lower arm. However, even though the patient recognizes he has an object in his right hand by touch, he has almost no ability to identify objects by touch when they are hidden from sight. Sensation in his left arm, torso and both legs is unaffected.

The patient experiences flaccid paralysis in the muscles on the right side of his jaw and face. Movements of his right hand are hesitant and uncoordinated – he can no longer play piano or type with his right hand. He can no longer move his right ring finger at all. Activity and coordination of other muscle groups appears normal.

The patient understands written and spoken words and can read and write normally. However, his speech is labored and his enunciation is severely impaired.

1. What is a TIA? What is a stroke?

2. Name and discuss some pathological conditions that could have caused the stroke suffered by this patient?

3. Even though the death of neurons accompanies a stroke, a stroke patient may partially regain the cerebral function that was lost. This recovery is likely to involve the regeneration of neurons by cell division. True or false? Why or Why not?

4. What is somatosensation? This loss of somatosensation on the right side of the patient’s jaw, face and tongue indicates the loss of function in which lobe of the cerebrum? How did you arrive at this conclusion?

A. frontal B. parietal C. temporal D. occipital

5. How does one interpret touch? The loss of the ability to interpret the kind of object present in his right hand by touch alone indicates damage to what area of the patient’s cortex? How did you arrive at this conclusion?

A. primary somatosensory area B. somatosensory association area C. motor association area D. primary motor cortex E. premotor cortex

6. Loss of coordinated motor function (piano playing, typing) in the right hand indicates damage to what area of the patient’s cortex? How did you arrive at this conclusion?

A. primary somatosensory area B. somatosensory association area C. motor association area D. primary motor cortex E. premotor cortex

7. Inability to move the right side of the jaw and face and right ring finger indicates damage to what area of the patient’s cortex? How did you arrive at this conclusion?

A. primary sensory area B. sensory association area C. motor association area D. primary motor cortex E. premotor cortex

8. Discuss the function of Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas. The difficulties that the patient has with language indicate which area of the cerebrum was damaged by the stroke? How did you arrive at this conclusion?

A. Broca’s area B. Wernicke’s area C. Both D. Neither

9. Which hemisphere was damaged by the stroke? How did you arrive at this conclusion?

A. right B. left C. both were involved

10. Would speech have been affected if the stroke had occurred in the other hemisphere? Why or Why not?

11. Draw a map of the motor and sensory homunculi (either draw and scan or you can take a picture and then insert). From the somatosensory and motor disruptions described, label the areas responsible for sensation and motor control which have been afflicted?

12. From the location of the damaged areas of the cerebrum, which cerebral artery and its branches were involved in the stroke?

A. anterior cerebral B. middle cerebral C. posterior cerebral D. superior cerebellar

 

 
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Case Study 1

A Simple Plan: E.L. Trudeau, the Rabbit Island Experiment, and Tuberculosis Treatment

Part I The Rabbit Island Experiment

1. The data from the experiment Dr. Trudeau describes is shown below in Figure 1. Graphs like Figure 1 are called survival curves. Describe Figure 1 in your own words. Explain why the rabbits are emaciated in groups 1 and 2.

2. Develop an answer to each of Dr. Trudeau’s questions:

What results ensue when both bacillary infection and unhygienic surroundings are made to coexist in tuberculosis?

Are unhygienic surroundings when every known precaution has been taken to exclude the bacillus sufficient of themselves to bring about the disease?

Is bacillary infection invariably progressive in animals placed under the best conditions of environment attainable?

 

3. Do Dr. Trudeau’s results support the germ theory of infection? Why or why not?

4. What do the data suggest might be good environmental conditions for tuberculosis patients?

5. What might be the effect of crowding on effective exposure rate of individual animals to MTb? (Hint: Would you rather board an airplane for a 3-hour trip where 2 out of 300 passengers had the flu or board an airplane where 200 out of 300 passengers had the flu?)

6. What is the dependent variable in the Rabbit Island Experiment? Also, list all of the independent variables you can think of in the experiment.

7. Select any one of the independent variables you have listed above and design an experiment similar to Dr. Trudeau’s. State your experimental question, i.e., what are you trying to find out. Formulate a hypothesis. Then decide upon and write out a description of how you will manipulate your treatment groups.

8. We respect Dr. Trudeau and all those earlier scientists who did the best they could within the contemporary understanding of the problem they addressed and utilizing the materials and technology they had at hand. Modern-day biologists like to talk about resistance/susceptibility genes and patterns of inheritance, rather than family blood. They think about infectious disease in terms of microbes and pathogenicity, rather than speaking of bad humors. They have identified vitamins and other nutrients that are abundant in some foodstuff s and lacking in other that are essential for optimal immune function. Without the benefit of such modern formulations, Dr. Trudeau, by a disciplined application of scientific curiosity and careful, clever methodology, shed light on each of these concerns, light that helped to illuminate the minds of scientists who came after. Still, a look at his original paper leaves us wondering, were the rabbits genetically identical? Probably not! Why? Were they all of the same sex and age? Couldn’t he have given the animals kept on short rations just a smaller amount of the same varieties of food available to the animals fed abundantly—after all, there might be some important nutrient missing in potatoes. In light of the title of the paper, why not measure bacterial numbers in the rabbits on post mortem rather than just survival time? (In a subsequent paper, he did exactly that.) Once you start critiquing an experiment from 100 years ago, or 10 years ago, or sometimes even last year, it’s hard to stop. Can you think of anything else you would have changed about the Rabbit Island Experiment?

9. Suppose you were the Mayor of New York City in the 1890s/early 1900s and were convinced by Dr. Trudeau’s experiments that in your city a transmissible bacterium was causing tuberculosis and that poor living conditions and inadequate diet were adversely affecting the ability of hundreds of people to fight the infection. What sort of public policies might you try to enact in order to combat the public health menace? What obstacles might you encounter?

Part II – Tuberculosis in Social Context

1. The curve shown in Figure 2 has three parts, from 1700–1800, 1800 to approx. 1955, and 1955 to approximately 1985. The data used to produce the curve are from Western Europe, but a similar one could be expected for the United States. Write a sentence telling why each part of the curve looks the way it does. In looking just at this graph, what would you predict about the death rate from TB in 2000 and 2005?

2. Tuberculosis causes nearly 2 million deaths worldwide each year. Between 1985 and 1992, cases of TB in the United States increased by 20 percent, as shown in Figure 3. Write a paragraph suggesting a few reasons why this resurgence of TB might have occurred in the United States

3. The resurgence lasted until approximately 1992, then, in the United States, it began to abate. In 2005 the TB case rate in the U.S. was 4.8 per 100,000, as the U.S. medical community brought the epidemic under control (Centers for Disease Control & Prevention, National Prevention Information Network, n.d.). However, in U.S. prisons and all over the world TB remains a serious health problem. In the U.S., zero tolerance drug laws have resulted in a burgeoning incarcerated population, which constitutes a significant reservoir of disease, with a far higher incidence rate than the general population. In New York prisons, the incidence rate of TB is 156.0/100,000compared to the rate of 10.4/100,000 in the general population (U.S. Agency for International Development, 2009). Considering all you have learned in Parts I and II, discuss why these rates may be so much higher in prison.

4. All of the following factors are important in causing the worldwide resurgence of tuberculosis: (a) emergence of strains that are resistant to one or more of the available antibiotics effective against MTb; (b) incomplete or inadequate understanding by scientists of the details of the host/pathogen interaction in MTb infection; (c) lack of a universally-accepted vaccine; (d) lack of financial support for science and for public health initiatives in developing countries; (e) famine; (f) geopolitical instability in the developing world; and (g) inadequate public awareness of public health issues. If you were a billionaire philanthropist like Warren Buffet or Bill Gates, where would you focus your efforts against tuberculosis?

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Module 6 ICD 10 PCS Coding Assignment

M132 Module 06 Coding Assignment

 

1. Case Study #1

 

PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Carcinoma of the right breast, status post neoadjuvant chemotherapy.

 

POSTOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Carcinoma of the right breast, status post neoadjuvant chemotherapy.

 

PROCEDURE PERFORMED: Right modified radical mastectomy, left prophylactic mastectomy

 

PREOPERATIVE HISTORY: The patient is an unfortunate 37-year-old woman who had a pregnancy associated breast cancer of the right breast with extensive involvement of the breast, clinically a stage III breast cancer. She underwent neoadjuvant chemotherapy with a complete clinical response to therapy with no residual palpable tumor in the breast and no palpable adenopathy. She has elected to undergo a bilateral mastectomy. She will have reconstructive surgery at a later time.

 

OPERATIVE NOTE: The patient was taken to the operating room. General anesthesia was induced. A Foley catheter was inserted. Her arms were placed on pads. Her legs were placed on pads. Bear hugger was applied and her entire upper torso was sterilely prepped and draped in usual fashion. Symmetric skin sparing mastectomies were planned incorporating the nipple-areolar complex on both sides. We began on the left side. An elliptical incision was made incorporating the nipple-areolar complex, carried down through the skin into the subcutaneous tissue. Flaps were raised circumferentially from the superior aspect to the clavicle, medially to the midline, inferiorly to the inframammary, fold and laterally out to the latissimus dorsi. The breast was then removed from the pectoralis major muscle incorporating the fascia, reflected laterally and truncated. It was marked for orientation, weighed and sent to pathology. Hemostasis was achieved where necessary using electrocautery. There was no evidence of bleeding at the end of the case. Moist laps were placed under the flaps and we moved to the right breast. Again, an elliptical incision was created incorporating the nipple-areolar complex and a little more skin laterally in that breast because the breast was a larger breast on that side. Flaps again were raised from superior infraclavicular and a portion of the breast circumferentially to the midline and subsequently to the inframammary fold and subsequently out to the latissimus dorsi muscle. The breast was removed from the pectoralis major muscle incorporating the fascia, reflected laterally. The clavipectoral fascia was opened and a level I and level II axillary lymph node dissection was performed on both sides, sparing the long thoracic and the thoracodorsal neurovascular bundle, as well as at least 1 intercostal brachial cutaneous nerves. The axillary lymph nodes will be examined for metastasis. There was no palpable adenopathy in level III. The breast and axilla were marked for orientation, weighed and sent to pathology. Irrigation was performed. Hemostasis was achieved where necessary using some Surgiclips and electrocautery. There was no evidence of bleeding at the end of the case.

 

ICD-10-PCS Code: Click here to enter text.

 

2. Case Study #2

 

PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Open wound left lower extremity status post fasciotomies of the left lower extremity for compartment syndrome status post external fixator for left tibial plateau fracture.

 

POSTOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Open wound left lower extremity status post fasciotomies of the left lower extremity for compartment syndrome status post external fixator for left tibial plateau fracture.

 

PROCEDURE PERFORMED: Irrigation and debridement of the left lower extremity down to muscle with primary wound closure of the medial and lateral wounds, both greater than 10 cm each.

 

ANESTHESIA TYPE: General.

 

ESTIMATED BLOOD LOSS: Less than 10 mL.

 

COMPLICATIONS: None.

 

INDICATIONS FOR SURGERY: The patient is a 59-year-old male with the above diagnosis. The patient had initial application of external fixator and fasciotomies performed by my partner, on November 23rd. The patient had open wounds, initially had application of a wound VAC with the intent to bring him back to the operating room for repeat I and D, possible ORIF, possible wound closure. Preoperatively, the patient’s leg was and he had too much soft tissue swelling. He did not have a positive wrinkle sign so the soft tissues were too swollen to proceed with definitive fixation, so the decision for maintaining the fixator and just doing irrigation and debridement along with possible wound closure was made at that time. Risks and benefits were explained to the patient. He made an informed decision to proceed with the above procedure.

 

PROCEDURE: The patient seen preoperatively. The left lower extremity was marked. He was brought in the operating room, placed on the operating table, given a general anesthetic. The left lower extremity was then thoroughly prepped and draped in standard orthopedic fashion. Once that was done, universal protocol of a time-out was taken to confirm that the left lower extremity was the correct operative site. Once that was done, 3 liters of lactated Ringer’s laced with bacitracin was used for both medial and lateral wounds. Any nonviable or necrotic tissue was debrided down. Majority of the muscle seemed healthy, was contractile with electrocautery. There was not an excessive amount of bleeding so the wounds were closed primarily. Both medial and lateral wounds with interrupted subcutaneous 2-0 Vicryl for the subcutaneous layer and a running 4-0 V-Loc for the skin. Wounds were then dressed with Steri-Strips, Xeroform, 4 x 4’s and Ace wrap. Xeroform was also placed around the pin sites for the external fixator which was also prepped out from the procedure. The patient was also noted to have some fracture blisters and several abrasions to the skin. Once the leg was dressed, the patient was extubated and

transferred to postanesthesia recovery unit in stable condition. All sponge and sharp counts were correct.

 

The patient received pre and will receive postoperative antibiotics. He is nonweightbearing. He will be placed back on his anticoagulant treatment most likely Lovenox for DVT prophylaxis and he will be discharged at the discretion of Trauma Service to follow up in the office for reevaluation and determine when definitive fixation will be performed.

 

ICD-10-PCS code: Click here to enter text.

 

 

 

3. Case Study #3

 

Do not code the X-ray or fluoroscopic guidance for this case.

 

PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS:

1. Comminuted right femur fracture secondary to multiple gunshot wounds.

2. Status post multiple gunshot wounds with open wounds, right thigh.

 

POSTOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS:

1. Comminuted right femur fracture secondary to multiple gunshot wounds.

2. Status post multiple gunshot wounds with open wounds, right thigh.

 

PRINCIPAL PROCEDURE PERFORMED:

1. Irrigation/and excisional debridement with primary closure of multiple gunshot wounds, right thigh, encompassing two wounds measuring 2 cm, one wound measuring 3 cm, one wound measuring 4 cm, one wound measuring 6 cm.

2. Open reduction/internal fixation/trochanteric femoral intramedullary nailing, right comminuted femur fracture, with Stryker GTN femoral intramedullary nail.

3. Use of x-ray/fluoroscopic guidance and interpretation.

 

ANESTHESIA: General.

 

The patient is a 25-year-old gentleman status post multiple gunshot wounds. He was brought to the Medical Center as a code yellow multi-trauma patient. He was emergently taken to the operating room last night for exploratory laparotomy. At that juncture, his gunshot wounds to his right thigh were irrigated and packed per the trauma service. He has been cleared for surgical stabilization of his comminuted right femur fracture. X-rays have shown him to have a comminuted midshaft femur fracture secondary to his multiple gunshots. At this juncture, it was elected to bring him to the operating room for surgical stabilization of his fracture, irrigation/debridement of his gunshot wounds, with primary closures of the open wounds. Preoperative consent was obtained from the patient’s mother. The patient has been cleared for surgical intervention per the trauma service.

 

The patient was brought to the operating room from the surgical intensive care unit. He was intubated and sedated. He was transferred onto the fracture table in the supine position. After the establishment of adequate general anesthesia, his right lower extremity underwent an initial irrigation, debridement and closure. The patient was placed on the fracture table and then his right lower extremity was prepped and draped in the usual normal sterile fashion. He did receive preoperative antibiotics. After adequate prepping and draping, his gunshot wounds noted to be five, two of them encompassing approximately 2 cm in length, one measuring 3 cm in length, one measuring 4 cm in length, and the fifth measuring 6 cm in length. All wounds were thoroughly debrided, this encompassing sharp dissection with a scalpel for the skin, subcutaneous tissues muscle and deep tissue. The posterior large wound also had several small bony fragments secondary to the marked comminution of his fracture. These dysvascular fragments with no soft tissue attachment were removed. The wounds were then copiously irrigated with pulsatile lavage. Three liters of pulsatile lavage antibiotic solution were initially irrigated through all the gunshot wounds, followed by an additional 3 liters of normal saline. Status post this, the skin edges were again sharply debrided; the tissue including muscle and subcutaneous tissue were also removed.

 

The wounds were then closed in layers. The subcutaneous tissues were then reapproximated using 2-0 Vicryl in an interrupted suture ligature fashion. The skin edges were then reapproximated using 2-0 nylon in an interrupted suture ligature fashion. Status post this, the patient was maintained on the fracture table and a gentle reduction of the patient’s comminuted fracture was accomplished, this using the fracture table and C-arm fluoroscopic guidance. Approximate measurements of the patient’s lower extremities were also obtained using the external ruler from the Stryker GTN trochanteric nail system. Measurements were approximately taken of the left femur and the right two approximate limb lengths. Status post, this reduction was maintained and the patient’s right hip and lower extremity were prepped and draped in usual normal sterile fashion. He again did receive preoperative antibiotics.

 

After adequate prepping and draping, the planned incision was mapped out using C-arm fluoroscopic guidance, this extending from the tip of the trochanter cephalad. The use of x-ray/fluoroscopic guidance was a medical necessity for this procedure, this in an effort to visualize the femur, visualize the reduction and maintain the reduction. The placement of the intramedullary nail necessitated the use of x-ray/fluoroscopic guidance in addition to the locking of the nail. The images were visualized and interpreted by myself. After adequate prepping and draping, the nail insertion wound was taken down clean and sharply through skin and subcutaneous tissues. Dissection down to fascia was accomplished and the fascia incised in line with the skin incision.

 

It should be noted that after we had the irrigated and debrided the patient’s gunshots with closures, the patient’s right lower extremity was reprepped and draped with new drapes in a sterile fashion. Dissection down to the fascia was accomplished and the fascia then incised in line with the skin incision. Dissection down to the tip of the trochanter was accomplished. A smooth Kirschner wire was initially utilized and the planned insertion point for a trochanteric nail was accomplished, this placed in the tip of the trochanter and verified to be in good position in the AP, lateral and oblique planes. This was then overreamed using a triple reamer. The guidewire was then placed into this and utilizing the fracture reduction tool, the guidewire was manipulated across the fracture region to the distal aspect of the femur. Intraoperative x-rays again revealed good alignment in the AP, lateral and oblique planes. Sequential reaming was then begun using a 9-mm reamer progressing by 1-mm increments through 14 mm. There was noted to be good positioning of the reamer. The appropriate measurements were taken at this juncture, and the definitive Stryker GTN trochanteric femoral nail was opened. It was then placed onto the inserter, the appropriate amount of rotation dialed in. this placed over the guidewire and then impacted into position. Intraoperative x-rays again revealed good alignment in the AP, lateral and oblique planes. Maintenance of reduction was accomplished.

 

The guidewire was then removed at this juncture. The nail was locked statically, the external alignment jig utilized for the proximal locking screws, one screw placed transversely with the additional screw placed obliquely. Both screws were found to have excellent bite and fixation. They were verified to be within the intramedullary nail. The distal aspect of the nail was then locked. Using the Cole radiolucent drill and the “perfect circle technique,” both locking screws were placed distally in a static mode. Intraoperative x-rays then revealed good alignment in the AP, lateral and oblique planes. Verification that these screws were in the intramedullary nail were accomplished.

 

All wounds were copiously irrigated with antibiotic solution and suction dried. Hemostasis obtained throughout using Bovie electrocautery. The patient’s deep fascia in the nail insertion was reapproximated using #1 Vicryl in an interrupted suture ligature fashion. All subcutaneous tissues, including the percutaneous screw insertion wounds, were reapproximated using 2-0 Vicryl in an interrupted suture ligature fashion, the skin edges reapproximated using staples. Sterile dressings were placed to all wounds, including the gunshot wounds, with sterile Adaptic gauze, sterile 4×4’s, sterile ABDs, sterile Webril. A Tegaderm was placed on the proximal aspect with Webril and an Ace wrap to the lower extremity as a whole. The patient was transferred back to the surgical intensive care unit in stable condition, having tolerated the procedure well.

 

Components utilized in this procedure were the Stryker GTN trochanteric femoral intramedullary nail, 13 x 420, with two proximal and two distal locking screws.

 

 

ICD-10-PCS code: Click here to enter text.

 
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Biology Lab

Name:______________________ Date: _______

Lab Section:___________

Pre-lab 1- Myths in Science (10 pts)

Read the introduction and “myths” 1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 8, & 9 in the article, The Principle Elements of the Nature of Science: Dispelling the Myths, by W.F. McComas (Posted on Blackboard in the lab folder). Complete the questions below and turn this page in at the beginning of lab.

PLEASE ALWAYS WEAR CLOSED TOED SHOES AND PANTS TO LAB!

1) Explain what the author means when he says that there is no well-accepted theory of gravity.

 

Answer

 

A scientific law or scientific principle is a concise verbal or mathematical statement of a relation that expresses a fundamental principle of science, like Newton’s law of universal gravitation. A scientific law must always apply under the same conditions, and implies a causal relationship between its elements. A law differs from a scientific theory in that it does not posit a mechanism or explanation of phenomena: it is merely a distillation of the results of repeated observation. As such, a law limited in applicability to circumstances resembling those already observed, and is often found to be false when extrapolated.

 

2) Compare the difference between the application of laws in biology versus the physical sciences.

Answer

 

The main difference is that Biology deals with living organisms, but the ramifications of this fact go beyond just the subject matter, because it also affects the nature of the scientific methods employed by biologists.

Understanding Organisms: One approach to understanding a phenomenon is to reduce it to its fundamental aspects, and, by understanding each component, you can gain some appreciation of the overall process. This approach, often referred to as reductionism, is useful, especially in the physical sciences, where, for example, a knowledge of the behavior of individual atoms allows you to predict the dynamics of a reaction system. However, the hierarchical organization of biological systems makes it impossible to understand all aspects of even a single organism by studying each of its components. Furthermore, there are certain biological processes, like Natural Selection, which cannot be predicted based on only a knowledge of Physics and Chemistry. In other words, the entire range of material phenomena are to be found in biological systems, whereas Physics and Chemistry only deal with a subset of these phenomena.

 

3) Explain what is meant by “generalizing” versus “explanatory” when applied to hypotheses.

 

Answer

 

Hypothesis simply means an educated guess. The reality of hypothesis can be complex. Explanatory hypothesis often referred as Trial Theory, is where hypothesis relates to an idea that may become a theory with more evidence and agreement from scientists. In other words, the trial hypothesis or idea is not yet validated, but if it is it becomes a scientific theory. While

Generalizing hypothesis or trial law is where hypothesis relates to an idea that may become a law with more evidence and agreement from scientists. In other words, the trial hypothesis or idea is not yet validated, but if it is it becomes a scientific law.

 

 

4) Explain the problem of induction in your own words and provide an example to illustrate this problem.

Answer

 

The problem of induction is the philosophical question of whether inductive reasoning leads to knowledge understood in the classic philosophical sense, since it focuses on the alleged lack of justification for either:

Generalizing about the properties of a class of objects based on some number of observations of particular instances of that class (for example, the inference that “all swans we have seen are white, and therefore all swans are white”, before the discovery of black swans) or

Presupposing that a sequence of events in the future will occur as it always has in the past (for example, the laws of physics will hold as they have always been observed to hold).

 

 

 

5) In your own words, explain why a scientist should never say that their hypothesis is “proven true”?

Answer

 

Well since a hypothesis is an educated guess it only come from what you think. It’s almost like an opinion. Example. If someone doesn’t like a movie but you say it’s the best, you can’t prove it to somebody else because it all depends on their opinion. Or another way to explain it is if you were talking to the person who didn’t like the movie you can’t prove it to them that it was good because that person has another opinion and thinks the opposite.

 

6) What does it mean for something to be falsifiable? Provide an example of a falsifiable hypothesis and a non-falsifiable hypothesis.

Answer

 

A statement is called falsifiable if it is possible to conceive an observation or an argument which proves the statement in question to be false. In this sense, falsify is synonymous with nullify, meaning not “to commit fraud” but “show to be false”.

 

For example, Newton’s Theory of Gravity was accepted as truth for centuries, because objects do not randomly float away from the earth. It appeared to fit the figures obtained by experimentation and research, but was always subject to testing.

 

However, Einstein’s theory makes falsifiable predictions that are different from predictions made by Newton’s theory, for example concerning the precession of the orbit of Mercury, and gravitational lensing of light. In non-extreme situations Einstein’s and Newton’s theories make the same predictions, so they are both correct. But Einstein’s theory holds true in a superset of the conditions in which Newton’s theory holds, so according to the principle of Occam’s Razor, Einstein’s theory is preferred. On the other hand, Newtonian calculations are simpler, so Newton’s theory is useful for almost any engineering project, including some space projects. But for GPS we need Einstein’s theory.

 

 

7) Consider the first chapter reading from the text book, give an example of a scientist(s) failure to be objective when drawing conclusions from their data in that reading.

 

Answer

 

Steven Jay Gould pointed out in science textbook “The Case of the Creeping Fox Terrier Clone (1988)”

The “fox terrier” refers to the classic comparison used to express the size of the dawn horse, tiny precursor to the modern horse. This comparison was unfortunate because of two reasons. Not only was this horse ancestor much bigger than a fox terrier, but the fox terrier breed of dog is virtually unknown to American students.

The major criticism leveled by Gould is that once this comparison took hold, no one bothered checking its validity or utility. Through time, one author after another simply repeated the inept comparison and continued a tradition making many science texts virtual clones of each other on this and countless other points.

 

 

 

 

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Edited 8/26/15 Biology 111 Lab Page

 
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IL-9: Snow & Avalanche Forecasting

1.2 – Case Study

Case studies are accident accounts that can provide valuable insight into how people make decisions that lead to accidents. Read the following case study (or one supplied by the instructor) and consider how the components of the AIARE DMF apply to the decisions that were made. These are not “Darwin Award” candidates. They are regular backcountry recreationists who’s decisions led to unwanted consequences. Note that while this incident affected recreational backcountry users, professionals have made similar mistakes. This story underscores the fact that all humans are capable of making poor decisions. Following the case study there is an exercise to complete. While reading, make a note of any factors outlined in the DMF that in retrospect could have alerted the group about the risk to which they were exposing themselves. How could the team have created and chosen better options for the day? How could they have increased their margin of safety and still accomplished their goals?

ACCIDENT REPORT: OHIO PASS, COLORADO

Date: February 25, 2001 Location: East Bowl in the Anthracite Range, 7 miles west of Crested Butte, CO. The account below is condensed from a report written by Dale Atkins, who investigated the accident for the CAIC: The day dawned clear and cold after a 10” snowfall the day before. A group of 5 friends – two men and three women – met at the Kebler Pass trailhead and snowmobiled into the Anthracite Range, approximately 7 miles from Crested Butte, for a day of powder skiing in the backcountry. All of the group were experienced backcountry travellers familiar with the terrain, most having lived and skied in the area for 15 plus years. One member of the party was former ski patroller. Everyone had formal avalanche training and carried a transceiver, shovel and probe.

The public avalanche bulletin that day reported a danger level of “moderate with pockets of considerable at or near treeline.” The bulletin also noted that backcountry skiers in the Crested Butte area had reported triggering avalanches recently but had no information about where or when the avalanches had occurred. That day, the group left early and did not access the bulletin. The day was going well as the group skied laps on 30+ degree slopes in treed and open runs generally on northern facing aspects. The snow was perfect and they experienced no cracking and saw no avalanches. There were two other groups skiing in the same area.

On their last run they decided to ski “East Bowl” one of the available routes down to the snowmobiles. East Bowl, as the name implies, faces east and is a mix of treed and open slopes with a variety of terrain features such as convexities, wind rolls, small cliffs and many small trees. In general it is steeper than the terrain the group had been skiing that day with slope angles between 25-45 degrees. At the top, the group saw two ski tracks leading into the bowl. All was progressing fine when part way down the group split up into one group of 2 and one group of 3 with the plan to meet on a shelf in the trees above the last pitch. The group of 2 (Mitch and Sue) split up with Mitch skiing to the bottom beyond the meeting point and the other, Sue, meeting the group of 3, above the last pitch, insight of the snowmobiles at the bottom. The group had voice contact with Mitch at the bottom of the run a short distance away and Sue decided to traverse over to where he had skied down. On the traverse to the slope that Mitch had descended she intersected with a steep rollover, triggered and was caught in an avalanche. Sue remained on the surface but sustained a fatal head injury and died at the scene. Crested Butte lost a cherished member of the community that day.

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External Forces And Their Impact On Health Care

External Forces and Their Impact On Health Care

 

Health care quality and safety are not solely dependent on the actions of individual providers and institutions. A host of external forces exert a profound influence on what happens within any single organization or the behavior of any individual provider. These external forces include accreditation bodies, regulators, legislatures, insurers, and many other entities. Sociopolitical forces, including the economy and public opinion, also play a role in how and how well health care is provided.

 

To prepare for this Discussion Question:

 

· Review this week’s Learning Resources.

 

· Choose a specific example of an external force that influences health care and safety, as discussed in Chapter 2 of your Course Text.

 

Then, analyze how it influences health care quality management. (The external force can have minimal or extensive impact on quality.) Finally, evaluate whether the impact on health care is positive or negative, providing evidence to support your position.

 

 

PAPER

 

Pay-for-Performance

 

The predominant model for the delivery of health care in the United States and other parts of the world is fee-for-service. A new model gaining in popularity is known as pay-for-performance, or P4P. In the P4P model, providers are paid for how well they provide care, not how much care they provide. There are rewards for high quality, efficient and effective care and penalties for wastefulness and medical errors. Whether or not P4P can raise the standards of care and/or lower its cost is a matter of some disagreement.

 

To prepare for this Application Assignment:

 

Review the Learning Resources for this week that discuss pay-for for-performance.

Find two additional reputable sources (i.e., news sources, accreditation and health care agencies, peer-reviewed journal articles, etc.) that address the challenges of adopting a pay-for-performance approach for ensuring quality and safety in health care.

 

To complete this Application Assignment, write a 3-page paper that addresses the following:

Summarize and analyze the challenges discussed in the two sources you selected.

Select the two most significant challenges to the successful adoption of a P4P approach, and explain why.

 
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Chapter 01: Cellular Biology MCQ

11.   Which phase of catabolism produces the most ATP?

a. Digestion
b. Glycolysis
c. Oxidation
d. Citric acid cycle

 

 

12.   A nurse is teaching the staff about the three phases of cellular catabolism. Which of the following should the nurse include?

a. Digestion, glycolysis and oxidation, and the citric acid cycle
b. Diffusion, osmosis, and mediated transport
c. S phase, G phase, and M phase
d. Metabolic absorption, respiration, and excretion

 

 

13.   A runner has depleted all the oxygen available for muscle energy. Which of the following will facilitate his continued muscle performance?

a. Electron-transport chain
b. Aerobic glycolysis
c. Anaerobic glycolysis
d. Oxidative phosphorylation

 

 

14.   The faculty member asked the student to identify the appropriate term for the movement of small, electrically uncharged molecules through a semipermeable barrier. Which answer indicates the nursing student understood the teaching?

a. Osmosis
b. Diffusion
c. Hydrostatic pressure
d. Active transport

 

 

15.   A nurse is teaching a patient about fluid and electrolytes. Which of the following indicates the teaching was successful regarding electrolytes? Electrolytes are:

a. Small lipid-soluble molecules
b. Large protein molecules
c. Micronutrients used to produce ATP
d. Electrically charged molecules

 

 

16.   A nurse is reading a chart and sees the term oncotic pressure. The nurse recalls that oncotic pressure (colloid osmotic pressure) is determined by:

a. Concentration of sodium
b. Plasma proteins
c. Hydrostatic pressure
d. Availability of membrane transporter proteins

 

 

17.   A patient has a body fluid of 300 mOsm/kg. This lab result is measuring:

a. Osmolality
b. Osmolarity
c. Osmotic pressure
d. Oncotic pressure

 

 

18.   In teaching a patient with cirrhosis, which information should the nurse include regarding cholesterol?

a. Cholesterol decreases the membrane fluidity of the erythrocyte, which reduces its ability to carry oxygen.
b. Cholesterol decreases the membrane fluidity of erythrocytes, which reduces its ability to carry hemoglobin.
c. Cholesterol increases the membrane fluidity of erythrocytes, which allows binding of excess glucose.
d. Cholesterol increases the membrane fluidity of erythrocytes, which prolongs its life span beyond 120 days.

 

 

19.   A nurse is discussing the movement of fluid across the arterial end of capillary membranes into the interstitial fluid surrounding the capillary. Which process of fluid movement is the nurse describing?

a. Hydrostatic pressure
b. Osmosis
c. Diffusion
d. Active transport

 

 

20.   A patient who has diarrhea receives a hypertonic saline solution intravenously to replace the sodium and chloride lost in the stool. What effect will this fluid replacement have on cells?

a. Cells will become hydrated.
b. Cells will swell or burst.
c. Cells will shrink.
d. Cells will divide.

 

 

21.   A nurse is teaching a patient with diabetes how glucose is transported from the blood to the cell. What type of transport system should the nurse discuss with the patient?

a. Active-mediated transport (active transport)
b. Active diffusion
c. Passive osmosis
d. Passive-mediated transport (facilitated diffusion)

 

 

22.   How are potassium and sodium transported across plasma membranes?

a. By passive electrolyte channels
b. By coupled channels
c. By adenosine triphosphate enzyme (ATPase)
d. By diffusion

 

 

23.   Why is potassium able to diffuse easily in and out of cells?

a. Because potassium has a greater concentration in the intracellular fluid (ICF)
b. Because sodium has a greater concentration in the extracellular fluid (ECF)
c. Because the resting plasma membrane is more permeable to potassium
d. Because there is an excess of anions inside the cell

 

 

24.   The ion transporter that moves Na+ and Ca2+ simultaneously in the same direction is an example of which of the following types of transport?

a. Biport
b. Uniport
c. Antiport
d. Symport

 

 

25.   During which process can lysosomal enzymes be released to degrade engulfed particles?

a. Endocytosis
b. Pinocytosis
c. Phagocytosis
d. Exocytosis

 

 

26.   A nurse is teaching the staff about cholesterol. Which information should be taught? The cellular uptake of cholesterol depends on:

a. Active-mediated transport
b. The antiport system
c. Receptor-mediated endocytosis
d. Passive transport

 

 

27.   Some cancer drugs work during the cell cycle phase where nuclear and cytoplasmic division occurs. What is this cell cycle phase called?

a. G1
b. S
c. M
d. G2

 

 

28.   What causes the rapid change in the resting membrane potential that initiates an action potential?

a. Potassium gates open, and potassium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane potential from negative to positive.
b. Sodium gates open, and sodium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane potential from negative to positive.
c. Sodium gates close, allowing potassium into the cell to change the membrane potential from positive to negative.
d. Potassium gates close, allowing sodium into the cell to change the membrane potential from positive to negative.

 

 

29.   A cell is isolated, and electrophysiology studies reveal that the resting membrane potential is –70 millivolts. The predominant intracellular ion is Na+, and the predominant extracellular ion is K+. With voltage change, which of the following would result in an action potential?

a. K+ rushing into the cell
b. Na+ rushing into the cell
c. Na+ rushing out of the cell
d. K+ rushing out of the cell

 

 

30.   A nurse is teaching the staff about platelet-derived growth factor. Which information should the nurse include? Platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) stimulates the production of:

a. Platelets
b. Epidermal cells
c. Connective tissue cells
d. Fibroblast cells

 

 

31.   The phase of the cell cycle during which the centromeres split and the sister chromatids are pulled apart is referred to as:

a. Anaphase
b. Telophase
c. Prophase
d. Metaphase

 

 

32.   What is the role of cytokines in cell reproduction?

a. Provide growth factor for tissue growth and development
b. Block progress of cell reproduction through the cell cycle
c. Restrain cell growth and development
d. Provide nutrients for cell growth and development

 

 

33.   A biopsy of the lung bronchi revealed ciliated epithelial cells that are capable of secretion and absorption. These cells are called _____ columnar epithelium.

a. Simple
b. Ciliated simple
c. Stratified
d. Pseudostratified ciliated

 

 

34.   The nurse would be correct in identifying the predominant extracellular cation as:

a. Sodium
b. Potassium
c. Chloride
d. Glucose

 

 

35.   The student is reviewing functions of the cell. The student would be correct in identifying the primary function of the nerve cell as:

a. Sensory interpretation
b. Conductivity
c. Maintenance of homeostasis
d. Communication

 

 

36.   The student is studying for a pathophysiology exam and is trying to remember the definition of amphipathic. The student should choose which of the following to be correct?

a. All cells have a membrane that is composed of lipids.
b. Cells have organelles that have specialized function.
c. Molecules are polar with one part loving water and one part hating water.
d. Cells have receptor sites that other substances attach to and create additional functions.

 

 

MULTIPLE RESPONSE

 

1.   A nurse recalls that the four basic types of tissues are (select all that apply):

a. Nerve
b. Epithelial
c. Mucosal
d. Connective
e. Skeletal
f. Muscle

 

 

2.   Characteristics of prokaryotes include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

a. They contain no organelles.
b. Their nuclear material is not encased by a nuclear membrane.
c. They contain a distinct nucleus.
d. They contain histones.
e. They contain a cellular membrane.
 
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Lab

Lab 5: Diffusion, Osmosis and Enzymes

Objective: The objective of this lab is to introduce you to the concepts of diffusion, osmosis and enzyme activity.

Reading Assignment: Read 4.9 and 5.4; Diffusion and Osmosis and How Enzymes Work from the textbook Essentials of the Living World.

 

For this lab you will need to supply the following materials:

Camera or cell phone (you will upload pictures of your experiment)

Kitchen scale (food scale, it can weigh in either ounces or grams)

Microwave

Liquid measuring cup

Teaspoon

Tablespoon (3 Tsp = 1 Tbs)

Several Drinking cups (1 needs to hold at least 2 cups of liquid)

1 Potato

Knife

Blender or Potato masher

Zip lock sandwich bag (not a freezer bag)

Pancake syrup

Salt

Sugar

Vinegar

Hydrogen Peroxide (H2O2)

 

Solutions to prepare

Sucrose solution – add one tablespoon of sugar to 1 cup of water

 

Exercise 1 – Diffusion

· In this exercise you will observe the diffusion of water through a semipermeable membrane (a plastic bag)

Step 1. Place ¼ of a cup of pancake syrup into a plastic zip lock bag and seal the bag.

Step 2. Weigh the bag using a small kitchen scale and record the weight on your worksheet.

Step 3. Fill larger cup (2 cup measuring or equivalent) with 1 cup of water. Record the time.

Step 4. Place the syrup bag in the larger cup and leave overnight (12+ hours).

Step 5. Remove the bag, dry it off and weigh it using a small kitchen scale. Record weight on your worksheet and the time you ended the experiment. (Hint: The bag should gain weight. If it loses weight you may have had a puncture. You must redo this exercise).

Step 6. Take a picture of the completed exercise and upload to the worksheet. Make sure it includes the date, your name and a photo ID.

Exercise 2 – Osmosis

· In this exercise you will determine the result of putting cells into solutions of various tonicity.

Step 1. Cut (2) potato slices: 3 inches long, 1 inch wide, 0.5 inches thick.

Step 2. Prepare two coffee cups with the following solutions:

Cup 1 = add one cup of water

Cup 2 = add one cup of water and 1 teaspoon of salt

Step 3. Add one potato slice to each cup and let stand for 1 hour.

Step 4. Remove potato slices and determine if the slice is crisp or limp. Record your observations of the slices on the data sheet.

Step 5. Take a picture of the completed exercise and upload to the worksheet. Make sure it includes the date, your name, and a photo ID.

Exercise 3 – Enzyme Activity

· In this exercise you will observe factors that affect the enzyme activity of catalase. Catalase is found in potato cells.

H2O2 (hydrogen peroxide) 2 H2O + O2 (oxygen gas) when catalase is present.

Step 1. Place the remaining amount of potato in a blender with two tablespoons of water. Blend to a paste. If you don’t have a blender use a potato masher to make the paste.

Experiment 3-1

Step 2. Transfer one tablespoon of the paste to a small cup and add 1 tablespoon of hydrogen peroxide.

Step 3. Mix together by gently rotating the cup clockwise and record your observations on the data sheet

Step 4. Take a picture of the completed exercise and upload to the worksheet. Make sure it includes the date, your name and photo/student ID.

 

Experiment 3-2

Step 5. Transfer one tablespoon of the paste to a small cup and add 1 tablespoon of sucrose solution.

Step 6. Mix together by gently rotating the cup clockwise and record your observations on the data sheet.

Step 7. Take a picture of the completed exercise and upload to the worksheet. Make sure it includes the date, your name and photo/student ID.

 

Experiment 3-3

Step 8. Transfer one tablespoon of the paste to a small cup and add 1 tablespoon of vinegar (an acid).

Step 9. Next add 1 tablespoon of hydrogen peroxide.

Step 10. Mix together by gently rotating the cup clockwise and record your observations on the data sheet.

Step 11. Take a picture of the completed exercise and upload to the worksheet. Make sure it includes the date, your name and photo/student ID.

 

Experiment 3-4

Step 12. Transfer one tablespoon of the paste to a small cup and add 1 tablespoon of water.

Step 13. Microwave on high for 1 minute.

Step 14. Remove from microwave (careful it’s hot) and allow 5 minutes to cool.

Step 15. Next add 1 tablespoon of hydrogen peroxide.

Step 16. Mix together by gently rotating the cup clockwise and record your observations on the data sheet.

Step 17. Take a picture of the completed exercise and upload to the worksheet. Make sure it includes the date, your name and photo/student ID.

 
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Unit 5 – Central Dogma Assignment

Assignment for BIO120 Concepts in Biology

Unit 5 Central Dogma

Due: Midnight Sunday of Unit 5

Describe the central dogma of molecular biology; briefly describe the processes of transcription and translation.

The paper should be at least 400- 500 words (~ 1 double-spaced, APA formatted page).

Students: Be sure to read the criteria, by which your paper/project will be evaluated, before you write, and again after you write.

Evaluation Rubric for Unit 5 Central Dogma

  CRITERIA Deficient

(0 Points)

Proficient

(1 Points)

Exemplary

(2 Points)

Points Possible
1. Defines the central dogma of molecular biology. Does not define the central dogma of molecular biology. Inaccurately defines the central dogma of molecular biology. Accurately defines the central dogma of molecular biology. 2
2. Describes the process of transcription. Does not describe the process of transcription. Incorrectly describes the process of transcription or does not describe it completely. Correctly describes the process of transcription or indicates the molecules involved (i.e. enzyme, substrate, product). 2
3. Describes the process of translation. Does not describe the process of translation. Incorrectly describes the process of translation or does not describe it completely. Correctly describes the process of transcription or indicates the molecules involved (i.e. enzyme, substrate, product). 2
4. Indicates where transcription and translation occur in a cell. Does not indicate where transcription and translation occur in a cell. Incorrectly indicates where transcription and translation occur in a cell. Correctly indicates where transcription and translation occur in a cell. 2
5. Grammar, spelling, and formatting The essay does NOT follow the APA format guidelines or contains more than six grammatical errors or misspellings. The essay follows the APA format guidelines but contains three to six grammatical errors or misspellings. The essay follows the APA format guidelines and contains no more than three grammatical errors or misspellings. 2
6. Clear and professional writing Writing is not well-organized or cannot be easily followed or understood. Uses choppy or rambling sentences. Writing is organized and can be followed, The essay contains effective transitions between sentences Writing is clear, professional, and well-organized. Essay is can be easily followed and uses effective transitions between sentences 2
Total Points: 12
 
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BIOLOGY HELP

1-The final shape of a protein is very important to its function. When proteins undergo an irreversible change in shape called ________________ they ________________ perform their usual functions.

  naturation/can
  naturation/cannot
  denaturation/can
  denaturation/cannot
  dehydration reaction/cannot

 

 

2-Which group of lipids will contain hydrophilic heads that face outwards and hydrophobic tails that face inwards that will form a barrier?

  phospholipids
  steroids
  triglycerides
  saturated acids
  trans-fatty acids

 

3-DNA codes for the sequence of amino acids in the primary structure of a protein, but not for sugars or lipids. This is because

  only proteins are involved in living metabolic reactions.
  sugars and lipids code for their own replication.
  sugars and lipids are ever present in the living environment and are not used in living structures.
  other hereditary molecules code for sugars and lipids.
  proteins are the main structural and functional components of cells.

 

4-Which statement about the cellular nucleic acids DNA and RNA is incorrect?

  DNA is double-stranded, and RNA is single-stranded.
  The sugar in DNA is deoxyribose, and in RNA the sugar is ribose.
  DNA has a helix shape; RNA does not.
  RNA and DNA have the same four nitrogen-containing bases.
  Both DNA and RNA are polymers of nucleotides.

 

5-All carbohydrate molecules

  contain amino acids.
  contain nitrogen and phosphate.
  are organic acids.
  are composed of atoms of C, H, and the functional group -OH.
  are composed of atoms of C, H, O, and N.

 

6-Two molecules of glucose combine to form a disaccharide molecule during a(n) ________ reaction.

  dehydration
  hydrolysis
  hydrogen bond
  ionic bond
  inert

 

7-One carbon atom can form covalent bonds with up to ___ other atoms to form an organic molecule.

  2
  3
  4
  6
  8

 

8-Enzymes are organic compounds classified as

  nucleic acids.
  carbohydrates.
  lipids.
  steroids.
  proteins.

 

9-Organic molecules

  always contain carbon.
  always contain hydrogen.
  always contain carbon and hydrogen.
  are found only in organisms, hence their name.
  are always food molecules.

 

10-The water strider is an insect that skates across the water without sinking. The tips of its feet must be coated with molecules that are

  ions.
  hydrophilic.
  hydrophobic.
  basic.
  acidic.

 

11-Nucleic acids are polymers of

  amino acids.
  nucleotides.
  glycerol.
  monosaccharides.
  fatty acids.

 

12-DNA codes for the sequence of amino acids in the primary structure of a protein, but not for sugars or lipids. This is because

  only proteins are involved in living metabolic reactions.
  sugars and lipids code for their own replication.
  sugars and lipids are ever present in the living environment and are not used in living structures.
  other hereditary molecules code for sugars and lipids.
  proteins are the main structural and functional components of cells.

 

 

13-The moon lacks life and varies dramatically in temperature. If we could keep a layer of water spread on the surface of the moon, what effect would it have?

  Life would be possible but it would have to withstand these extremes in temperature.
  Water would absorb and hold heat and moderate the temperature extremes.
  The temperatures would drop to the lower extremes.
  Because water has a high heat of vaporization, the temperatures would rise to the upper extremes.
  Physical conditions would remain the same.

 

 

14-____ is a polysaccharide that is found in plant cell walls and accounts for their strength.

  Cellulose
  Chitin
  Glycogen
  Starch
  Cholesterol

 

 

 

15-The primary function of carbohydrates is

  quick fuel and short-term energy storage.
  structural reinforcement of plant and fungal cell walls.
  encoding the hereditary information.
  to speed chemical reactions in cells.
  to transport molecules across cell membranes.

 

16-Which of the following types of lipid is the most abundant constituent of cell membranes?

  cholesterol
  phospholipid
  triglyceride
  neutral fat
  fa
 
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