Answer 5 Questions

Question 1

Identify areas of the body that are more prone to injury. Of those identified, which usually involve chemical burns? Why? Also, of those identified, which usually involve heat burn injuries? Why? Your response should be at least 200 words in length. You are required to use at least your textbook as source material for your response. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations.

20 points

Question 2

Heinrich summarized what he thought health and safety decision makers should know about accidents. Identify his 10 Axioms of Industrial Safety. Compare these 10 ideas to his Domino Theory. Explain your answer. Your response should be at least 200 words in length. You are required to use at least your textbook as source material for your response. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations.

20 points

Question 3

Compare and contrast the Human Factors Theory in Practice with the Accident/Incident Theory in Practice. Explain ways that a safety system can fail, thereby contributing to these theories. Your response should be at least 200 words in length. You are required to use at least your textbook as source material for your response. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations.

20 points

Question 4

How does today’s rate of accidental work deaths compare with the rates of the early 1900s? What are the five leading causes of deaths on work sites today? Your response should be at least 200 words in length. You are required to use at least your textbook as source material for your response. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations.

20 points

Question 5

What are the five factors that workers should consider before beginning the process of collecting information in order to make a decision? Explain how you think pondering these factors can assist a worker in making an informed decision while on the job. How do stressors cloud the judgment of someone making decisions on-site? Your response should be at least 200 words in length. You are required to use at least your textbook as source material for your response. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations.

Answer

 
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100 Environmental Science Questions

5

Final Examination

GED 108 Environmental Science

Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)

1) The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment primarily characterized human impact on:

A) atmospheric carbon dioxide levels B) degradation of the ozone layer C) ecosystem services D) plate tectonics

2) The Fourth Assessment Report, released in 2007 concluded that global climate change is caused at least in part by the:

A) human use of fossil fuels to generate electricity and power engines B) human use of chlorofluorocarbons in refrigeration systems C) harvesting of millions of acres of corn, wheat, and soybeans around the world every year D) depletion of groundwater supplies

3) Carbon dioxide in the atmosphere contributes to global warming by:

A) transmitting visible light and absorbing infrared radiation B) transmitting infrared radiation and absorbing visible light C) transmitting infrared radiation and visible light D) absorbing infrared radiation and visible light

4) The Doha Round of WTO meetings have failed to reach agreement about:

A) currency exchange B) converting the economies of developed nation from green to brown C) farm subsidies and trade barriers D) how to control public protests at future WTO meetings

5) The classical economic paradigm and the new ecological economic paradigm differ in the way that:

A) each views the land, either as a resource within the human economy (classical) or as something that encompasses the economy (ecological) B) the value of capital is assessed, either in dollars (classical) or as resources that can be mined from the Earth (ecological) C) labor is determined, either as the number of people who are unemployed, not counting farmers (classical), or the number of people who are unemployed counting farmers (ecological) D) labor and capital are assessed, either counting the total labor and capital resources available (classical) or that which is in use in operations (ecological)

 

 

6

Final Examination

GED 108 Environmental Science

6) The ecological economic paradigm argues that the environment encompasses the economy because the environment is essential to provide:

A) the energy necessary to run our homes and factories. B) solar energy needed for plants and to light our environment during the day. C) transportation along highways, railways, rivers, and oceans. D) vital raw materials and ecosystem services and absorb wastes.

7) The ecological economists’ view emphasizes the role of:

A) amount and quality of capital available to industry. B) abundance of well-trained, well-educated labor that is available. C) natural ecosystems. D) public’s understanding of the natural environment.

8) In some deserts, there are mice and lizards that are about the same size. The mice eat grains and the lizards feed on insects. Given this information, we would expect that the biomass of the:

A) lizards would be about the same as the mice. B) lizards would be greater than the mice. C) mice would be greater than the lizards. D) lizards and mice would be about 10 times greater than the organisms that they consume.

9) Why are there so few ecosystems with more than four levels of consumers?

A) because biomass decreases by about 90% at each trophic level moving up B) because top consumers compete with and kill each other with increasing population size C) because consumers at these highest trophic levels typically form social groups that stop reproducing at high densities D) because predators at the highest trophic levels simply are not intelligent enough to hunt other top predators

10) The information of an energy pyramid reveals that:

A) it is expensive and inefficient to get most of your dietary calories from meats. B) it is expensive and inefficient to get most of your dietary calories from grains. C) consumers at lower trophic levels do not have as many calories as consumers at higher trophic levels. D) consumers at higher trophic levels are usually more abundant than consumers at lower trophic levels.

 

 

7

Final Examination

GED 108 Environmental Science

11) Modern civilization and population growth had their origins in which revolution?

A) Industrial Revolution B) Medical Revolution C) Green Revolution D) Neolithic Revolution

12) More efficient technologies, better urban and regional planning, policy and industrial changes will be required to drive which revolution?

A) Industrial Revolution B) Medical Revolution C) Green Revolution D) Environmental Revolution

13) Name the two most recent of the revolutions affecting the global human population.

A) Green Revolution and Environmental Revolution B) Neolithic Revolution and Industrial Revolution C) Medical Revolution and Neolithic Revolution D) Medical Revolution and Green Revolution

14) The transition from high death rates to low death rates in population is a result of the :

A) Industrial Revolution. B) Medical Revolution. C) Green Revolution, D) Environmental Revolution.

15) The five main revolutions of human history have all resulted in:

A) a greater reliance upon fossil fuels. B) an increase in human carrying capacity. C) a reduction in the spread of disease. D) increased need for transportation.

16) Developing countries have increasingly become involved in the integrated global economy primarily due to:

A) increased use of vaccinations. B) improvements in sewage and sanitation. C) constructions of dams and irrigation canals. D) increased use of technology.

 

 

8

Final Examination

GED 108 Environmental Science

17) A study is conducted to understand how some developing countries have made social and economic progress. Which of the following would be a surprising finding in such a study?

A) decreased fertility rates B) increased availability of clean drinking water C) decreased support of education D) a decline in extreme poverty

18) Which of the following descriptions is most characteristic of the world’s poorest people?

A) On her way to high school, a young girl walks along a path at the edge of a rice field. B) Filling a pot with clean water from a community water reserve, a mother prepares to make a meal of rice. C) A man in his 80s, smoking a cigarette, makes his way to cast a ballot in a national election. D) In a large city, a 12 year-old boy sits under a stack of tin he calls home.

19) In general, which of the following would best help to reduce extreme poverty?

A) programs specifically targeted to bring the poorest nations into the development process B) international efforts to promote economic growth in countries with the greatest poverty C) increased development of environmental protection in countries with the greatest poverty D) adoption of cultural programs that shift populations from rural to urban locations

20) Distilling salt water to make fresh water relies upon the processes of:

A) precipitation and infiltration. B) transpiration and evaporation. C) evaporation and condensation. D) condensation and transpiration.

21) Some lakes have river and stream tributaries but no outlet, losing water mainly through evaporation. Over time, we expect that such lakes will:

A) increase their fishing productivity. B) become deeper. C) become saltier. D) be good sources of drinking water.

22) Which of the following would we expect on the leeward sides of high mountain ranges?

A) rainforests B) deserts C) wetlands D) deciduous forests

 

 

9

Final Examination

GED 108 Environmental Science

23) The greatest worldwide use of water is for:

A) irrigation. B) industry. C) human consumption. D) washing and flushing toilets.

24) The single greatest threat to irrigated agriculture is:

A) groundwater depletion. B) global warming. C) flooding. D) None of the above

25) We would expect that soil leaching would be most severe in regions where:

A) there is little rainfall and no irrigation of crops. B) there is heavy rainfall. C) mollisols are abundant and farmers rarely plow. D) cattle are grazed and natural grasses cover the land.

26) In which of the following agricultural situations are fertilizers least needed?

A) A pumpkin patch is harvested only in the fall, and the vines remain behind. B) 1,000 acres of corn are raised and harvested for export from a midwestern farm. C) A natural prairie pasture where cattle feed and defecate. D) A field where a farmer applies cow manure after harvesting hay.

27) A farm field that has used only inorganic fertilizer for the past 20 years is most likely to have:

A) fewer soil organisms and less soil structure but increased nutrient holding capacity. B) fewer soil organisms, less soil structure, and decreased nutrient holding capacity. C) more soil organisms, more soil structure, and increased nutrient holding capacity. D) more soil organisms, less soil structure, and decreased nutrient holding capacity.

28) The charitable organization, Heifer International, uses donations to provide people in developing nations with farm animals to help feed hungry families. Heifer International is therefore contributing to:

A) the Green Revolution. B) subsistence farming. C) the Industrial Revolution. D) high impact farming.

 

 

10

Final Examination

GED 108 Environmental Science

29) Many people in the developing world primarily rely upon a diet of rice. Such a diet, even with plenty of rice available to meet the daily calorie requirements, runs the risk of:

A) malnutrition. B) overnourishment. C) undernourishment. D) obesity.

30) Regularly providing food to regions with chronic hunger in developing countries can aggravate the problem of food supplies by:

A) changing the types of native foods consumed by the local people. B) causing nutritional deficiencies associated with a new type of food. C) causing overnourishment and the health problems associated with obesity. D) decreasing the local production of food and disrupting the local economy.

31) Even using the best methods for sustainable agriculture, Green Revolution grain crops in developed nations are ultimately limited by:

A) weather. B) pests. C) soil degradation. D) problems with transportation and storage.

32) In sub-Saharan Africa and Asia, the major nutritional problems relate to:

A) inadequate exercise. B) malnutrition in pregnant women. C) undernourishment of adults. D) malnutrition and undernourishment, especially in children.

33) In the past 40 years, pesticide use has tripled yet pests still cause extensive damage to crops. Why has this increased use of pesticides not been more effective?

A) The pesticides in use today are much less powerful due to government regulations. B) The pesticides available are no longer suited for the most common types of pests. C) Increases in ultraviolet radiation and global warming break down pesticides faster. D) The widespread use of pesticides has resulted in the evolution of pesticide resistant pests

 

 

11

Final Examination

GED 108 Environmental Science

34) The goals of biotechnology currently include:

A) growing crops that are more resistant to drought and disease. B) producing greater crop yields in plants that can grow without water. C) altering plants to increase the production of coal. D) creating plants that do not need sunlight to grow.

35) As demands for electricity push the limits of existing electric-power-generating plants in the United States, when is it most likely that a brown-out or blackout will disrupt electricity to your home computer?

A) during a weekend in the winter B) during a weekday in the winter C) during a weekend in the summer D) during a weekday in the summer

36) A blackout like the eight-state blackout of 2003 could be prevented by:

A) using energy efficient lights in most businesses. B) a self-healing smart electrical grid. C) switching from coal to natural gas for electrical generation. D) greater use of electricity during the work week instead of weekends.

37) Fossil fuels represent:

A) a large amount of paleozoic and mesozoic biomass buried anaerobically millions of years ago. B) natural deposits of organic materials that formed long before life on Earth evolved. C) the remains of fossil animals that lived a few thousand years ago. D) sustainable sources of energy that are underused today.

38) The use of enhanced recovery by an oil company:

A) primarily depends upon the current market price of oil. B) is usually more cost effective than recovering oil using secondary recovery. C) has not yet been used because oil reserves remain abundant. D) is now routine, as every bit of oil is extracted from all available wells.

39) Currently, the greatest supply of natural gas in the United States is:

A) associated with petroleum deposits. B) in gas-rich shale. C) obtained by chemically converting petroleum into methane. D) in deposits of coal lying under Arizona and California.

 

 

12

Final Examination

GED 108 Environmental Science

40) The Obama administration has recently revised the CAFE standards affecting fuel economy:

A) higher mileage four years sooner, in 2016. B) higher mileage in the same period, in 2020. C) lower mileage in the same period, in 2020. D) lower mileage about four years later, in 2024.

41) Nuclear power plants are especially expensive because they:

A) require the highest levels of security. B) usually cost as much to decommission as they did to build. C) have so many parts that must be coated in gold. D) are constructed of many thick layers of concrete.

42) Over the past 50 years, interest in nuclear power:

A) rose, decreased, and now is increasing again. B) decreased, rose, and now is decreasing again. C) has remained high around the world. D) was high but then declined and continues to decline worldwide.

43) About 17,000 Russian nuclear warheads have been:

A) stored widely in the former Soviet Union where they remain today with minimal protection. B) dismantled, but their nuclear waste remains in Russian facilities with minimal security. C) dismantled, with the nuclear fuel purchased by the United States for its nuclear power plants. D) concentrated in two centralized Russian locations with high levels of security, awaiting long-term storage.

44) Looking at the number of nuclear power plants under construction in 2010:

A) the largest numbers have been in the United States, Canada, and France. B) China, the Russian Federation and India are in the lead. C) nuclear power is on the way out globally, with coal-fired plants rising steeply. D) the IAEA predicts that the current trend will be reversed.

 

 

13

Final Examination

GED 108 Environmental Science

45) Which of the following is a clear advantage in the use of nuclear power instead of fossil fuels?

A) Nuclear plants are cheaper to build than power plants that burn fossil fuels. B) Nuclear power can be used today to power most forms of public transportation. C) Nuclear power contributes less to global climate change. D) Nuclear power generates fewer wastes with lower health risks.

46) New buildings that receive the energy star rating are recognized for using:

A) solar or geothermal for at least 30% of the building’s energy needs. B) solar power for at least 50% of the building’s energy needs. C) wind power for at least 20% of the building’s energy needs. D) 40% less energy than other buildings in their class.

47) Photovoltaic cells are commonly used to power:

A) lawn mowers. B) lighthouses. C) calculators. D) industrial manufacturing.

48) Although they have tremendous advantages, wind turbines:

A) cause thousands of bird deaths each year. B) are known to dry out the soil in the surrounding region. C) make the surrounding region unsuitable for farming or ranching. D) generate greenhouse gases when producing electricity.

49) Buses and cars using fuel cells are:

A) not yet possible because the technology to safely store hydrogen is still not resolved. B) not yet available because the fuel cell generates unsafe levels of heat. C) still inefficient, largely because the fuel cells are large and heavy. D) already in use and ready for commercial production.

50) Which one of the following produces the least air pollution?

A) an automobile burning hydrogen as a fuel B) an automobile running on a hydrogen fuel cell C) a Toyota Prius hybrid vehicle D) a car running on natural gas

 

 

14

Final Examination

GED 108 Environmental Science

51) A tidal barrage would be used to generate electricity:

A) at the mouth of a bay. B) at the bottom of a large lake. C) near the tip of an ocean peninsula. D) in the open ocean.

52)Some milk becomes contaminated with mercury. If each of the following people consume 16 ounces of this contaminated milk each day for a month, who will most likely be impacted by this poison?

A) an 82-year-old woman B) a fetus inside a mother who drinks this contaminated milk C) a 12-year-old girl D) a 51-year-old man

53) In general, countries that enjoy the best health have:

A) the warmest climates. B) diets primarily based on eating grains. C) the largest families. D) good educational systems, particularly for women.

54) Malaria, dengue fever, and yellow fever are most common in:

A) North America. B) Australia and New Zealand. C) countries in the tropics. D) countries that are located nearest the poles.

55) The most effective antimalarial strategies involve the use of:

A) DDT, bed nets, and quick access to drug treatment. B) DDT, immunization, and the drainage of all standing water in a region. C) immunizations, surgery, and a change in diet. D) sterilization of mosquitoes, treatment of mosquito breeding sites, and antibiotics.

 

 

15

Final Examination

GED 108 Environmental Science

56) Risk assessment by the EPA currently follows four sequential steps. In order, these are:

A) exposure determination, dose-response determination, hazard control, and risk identi- fication. B) risk identification, hazard characterization, dose-response determination, and expo- sure control. C) hazard identification, dose-response assessment, exposure assessment, and risk char- acterization. D) risk characterization, exposure assessment, dose-response assessment, and hazard assessment.

57) The EPA’s new Tox-Cast program:

A) uses enhanced animal testing to screen potentially toxic chemicals. B) uses human cells such as stem cells to rapidly screen potentially toxic chemicals. C) has initiated media campaigns to alert the public to toxic chemicals. D) uses human cancer patients to screen potential allegins in the workplace.

58) The inside of a car or greenhouse would not heat up as much in the presence of sunshine if:

A) air was circulated within the car or within the greenhouse. B) infrared radiation passed through glass as easily as sunlight. C) infrared radiation could not pass through glass as easily as sunlight. D) sunlight could pass through glass more easily than through air.

59) Global warming is raising sea levels because of:

A) melting ice and thermal expansion. B) ocean basins compressed by continental drift. C) greatly increased precipitation. D) increased use of irrigation and drainage of wetlands on land.

60) Which one of the following has been declining globally over the past several decades?

A) nitrous oxide levels in the troposphere B) methane levels in the troposphere C) mean global temperature D) pH of the world’s oceans

61) When generally comparing life in suburban sprawl and life in the inner city, people living in the inner city:

A) walk more and shop locally. B) have larger homes and better city services. C) experience lower crime rates. D) enjoy lower-density residential living.

 

 

16

Final Examination

GED 108 Environmental Science

62) Tired of the traffic jams downtown, Roxanne decides that she wants to move out to the suburbs; then she won’t have to spend so much time in the car. One major problem with this decision is that on average, people living in suburbs:

A) have to pay much more money for housing. B) spend much more time walking to their destinations. C) are faced with higher crime rates that add many more problems. D) spend as much time commuting as people living closer to the city.

63) The choices to live in ever-expanding suburbs, despite the costs to society and the environment, reflects a choice that places greater value on:

A) personal good over common good. B) common good over personal good. C) resource services over environmental services. D) environmental services over human services.

64) Organizations such as the Shack/Slum Dwellers International are helping the people who live in the vast slums surrounding major cities by:

A) helping them dig wells for drinking water and grow vegetable gardens near their homes. B) representing them to institutions such as the World Bank and city governments. C) constructing public transportation systems within developing cities. D) relocating them into the rural countryside where jobs are abundant.

65) One of the most common and essential ways that modern cities have become more livable is by:

A) decreasing the density of the population throughout the cities. B) shifting emphasis from personal automobiles to public transportation.

C) eliminating all city taxes and instead relying upon federal aid. D) requiring all citizens to perform monthly community service.

66) The changes in behavior of the fishermen on Tangier Island since 1997 best reflects:

A) values-based stewardship. B) personal gain. C) sound science. D) sustainable use of energy.

 

 

17

Final Examination

GED 108 Environmental Science

67) In a chemical reaction:

A) atoms are destroyed. B) atoms are rearranged to form different kinds of matter. C) new atoms are formed. D) new elements are formed.

68) Which of the following would most likely cause the greatest harm to wild Giant Panda populations in China?

A) captive breeding of giant pandas already in zoos throughout the world B) restricting logging in regions within the current Giant Panda range C) promoting the giant panda as a national symbol of China D) the introduction of beetles that eat bamboo

69) Which one of the following statements is correct?

A) Atoms are composed of protons and compounds are composed of neutrons and electrons. B) Atoms are the smallest components of an element that have the element’s properties. C) Solids are made of elements, liquids and gases are made of compounds. D) Water is an element made from two compounds.

70) Which one of the following is a molecule but not a compound?

A) O2 B) H2O C) CO2 D) CH4

71) Most organisms use water in:

A) liquid form. B) the form of rain. C) solid form. D) gaseous form.

72) Most of the energy captured by photosynthesis is stored in chemical bonds in:

A) oxygen. B) carbon dioxide. C) water. D) glucose.

 

 

18

Final Examination

GED 108 Environmental Science

73) In general, K-strategists have a:

A) type I survivorship pattern, and r-strategists have a type III survivorship pattern. B) type II survivorship pattern, and r-strategists have a type I survivorship pattern. C) type II survivorship pattern, and r-strategists have a type III survivorship pattern. D) type III survivorship pattern, and r-strategists have a type II survivorship pattern.

74) In general, it is rare for a parasite to:

A) feed on a host. B) kill its host. C) spread from one host to another. D) compete with other parasites for access to a host.

75) Rabbits in Australia:

A) have recently been eliminated by introducing a lethal rabbit virus. B) are an example of the disastrously high biotic potential of some introduced species. C) evolved with marsupials and are a natural part of the Australian landscape. D) have now evolved into three new species as the rabbits have adapt to their new environments.

76) Which one of the following illustrates intraspecific competition?

A) a butterfly feeding on the nectar of a daffodil flower B) a sea gull swooping down to snatch a fish from the water’s surface C) a tick and a flea sharing a dog’s back D) male red-winged blackbirds defending nesting sites from other males

77) The concept of fitness is based on two separate abilities. These are the ability to:

A) survive and reproduce. B) find a mate and have offspring. C) defend against enemies and find food. D) produce and defend a family.

78) Which one of the following is characteristic of a K-selected species?

A) fast reproductive rate B) large body size C) short life span D) production of large numbers of offspring

 

 

19

Final Examination

GED 108 Environmental Science

79) Rachel Carson was particularly critical of the use of DDT to:

A) eradicate mosquitoes in wetland areas. B) control the spread of Dutch elm disease. C) control pests in national parks. D) fertilize large areas of corn and soy crops.

80) The global human population in 2013 was more than:

A) 10 billion and is increasing at an annual rate of 5%. B) 2.2 billion and is no longer growing. C) 7.1 billion and is growing at a rate of 1.2%. D) 13 billion and is decreasing at a rate of 3% in developing nations.

81) 40) Because of the modern environmental movement: A) world population has remained stable. B) coal power plants are the main source of our electricity. C) federal government is less involved in environmental policy. D) solved some pollution problems.

82) The statement, “The Earth was not given to you by your parents, it was lent to you from your children” best reflects:

A) junk science. B) higher rates of consumption of non-renewable materials. C) stewardship. D) the need for a strong central or military government.

83) Which of the following has been most negatively impacted by globalization?

A) local cultures’ religious and dietary traditions B) agricultural practices C) public-health practices D) the exchange of information

84) The foundation of all science and scientific discovery is:

A) an already accepted theory. B) experiments. C) multiple hypotheses, some of which are unanswerable. D) observations.

 

 

20

Final Examination

GED 108 Environmental Science

85) In the classical view of economic activity, households:

A) are paid for goods and services. B) pay for most of the labor. C) consume goods and services. D) provide most of the products.

86) Which is an example of produced capital?

A) stocks and bonds B) laws and policies C) organically grown mangoes D) fisheries

87) Environmental public policy is intended to:

A) promote the harvesting of natural resources. B) improve human welfare and protect the natural world. C) ensure access to natural resources for industry. D) measure the impact of industrial wastes on the environment.

88) Today, DDT is no longer used in the United States because it is banned by law. At this point, the issue has reached the:

A) control stage. B) implementation stage. C) formulation stage. D) recognition stage.

89) The modern U.S. environmental movement began as a:

A) very partisan, divided effort, but now has broad bipartisan support. B) very partisan effort, which remains partisan and highly contested today. C) broad bipartisan effort, which remains in effect today. D) broad bipartisan effort but has fractured into a very contentious partisan debate with intense lobbying.

90) The Obama administration:

A) now censors scientific study that conflicts with its position. B) now encourages the development of renewable energy and reduction of carbon emissions. C) no longer requires consultation with wildlife experts before approving projects potentially harming endangered species. D) has slashed the EPA’s budget so that little enforcement is possible.

 

 

21

Final Examination

GED 108 Environmental Science

91) Which biome is characterized by permafrost?

A) tundra B) high latitude temperate forests C) cold deserts D) high latitude coniferous forests

92) This stage of succession starts with preexisting soil:

A) aquatic to terrestrial succession. B) primary succession. C) intermediate succession. D) secondary succession.

93) Which of the following represents a resilience mechanism?

A) crown fires resulting from many years of fire suppression B) the emergence of a meadow in a recently burned forest C) soil erosion resulting from burned soil washing away from a forest floor D) burned trees accumulating on a forest floor after a fire

94) Energy transfer between trophic levels in aquatic systems is generally:

A) less efficient than terrestrial food pyramids. B) less efficient than a detritus food web because aquatic systems lack fungi. C) inverted, in which more energy is transferred from one trophic level up to the next. D) more efficient than terrestrial systems.

95) About 40% of the land’s primary production on Earth:

A) has been destroyed by global climate change. B) has been appropriated to meet human needs. C) uses more oxygen than it produces. D) has been lost just to build enough homes for all of the people on Earth.

96) The social and economic changes in Thailand over the past 50 years have:

A) caused the population to decline by 20%. B) been at the expense of poorer nutrition for children. C) slowed population growth significantly. D) shown that the nation has yet to undergo the fertility transition.

 

 

22

Final Examination

GED 108 Environmental Science

97) Two conflicting approaches to helping countries through the demographic transition require different types of aid. An attempt to provide aid using both approaches might include:

A) desalination plants to bring in more fresh water and distribution of vaccines. B) shipments of large amounts of food and improvements in sanitation systems. C) construction of recycling plants and investment in pollution control systems. D) investments in banks and distribution of birth control.

98) The most recent Cairo population conference in 1994 found widespread agreement that the greatest way to help developing countries was to:

A) limit their population growth. B) increase their use of modern medicine. C) improve their agricultural productivity. D) limit their environmental degradation.

99) The window of opportunity presented by the demographic dividend generally ends as:

A) people start having larger families. B) people live longer. C) economic pressures require more people to work. D) rural populations increase.

100) The Millennium Development Goals were wide ranging, but did not specifically address:

A) communicable disease. B) maternal health and child mortality. C) higher secondary and college education. D) environmental sustainability.

 
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Literature Review-Four Pages-Compare And Contrast A Carcinogen That Is A Mutagen To A Carcinogen That Is Not A Mutagen

Four pages not including cover page or references

This unit’s assigned reading focuses on chemical-induced mutagens. As you are aware from the reading, not all carcinogens are mutagens. For this assignment, compare and contrast a carcinogen that is a mutagen to a carcinogen that is not a mutagen. Find at least four peer-reviewed journal articles published within the last 7 years that discuss the carcinogens and the cancer that each causes.

Compare the means of exposure of each chemical and the type of cancer each causes. Be sure to integrate the perspective and information gathered from each article into a discussion in your own words.

Your literature review must include the following components:

  • an introduction of your topic of choice (include some background information on the origins of exposure and cancer),
  • the methods used to search for the articles,
  • the results of the articles,
  • a discussion and conclusion with your own opinion, and
  • APA references and in-text citations for the article.

The literature review must be t four pages in length and follow APA formatting.

 
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Reword Assignment Chapter 10

Chapter 10 Discussion Questions

Question-What would the US diet look like if there had never been any food advertising or promotion? What would US food system look like?

Answer-Promotion is used to market all forms of food in the US food system from oats to frozen vegetables to meat to soft drinks, fast food, and candy. Health concerns have arisen because a large proportion of the marketing reaching food consumers is for foods that dietary recommendations indicate should be consumed in moderation. This brings me to believe that the US diet would be better if there had never been any food advertising or promotion. There would also be lower rates of obesity and illness. The US food system would not be what is today with advertising because outside of what individual normally consume, there would not be any type of major influence on people’s eating habits.

Question-What difference has the increasing amount of segmentation in modern marketing methods made to the effects of promotional marketing?

Answer-It recognizes, that a one-size-fits-all approach to marketing no longer works among diverse, sophisticated consumers. Children and youth represent an important demographic market because, as one-quarter of the US population, they are a large base of potential customers and influence purchases made by parents and households. They also constitute the future adult market, creating the incentive for manufacturers to instill brand loyalty that will last into adulthood. The effectiveness of promotional marketing was enhanced because foods were positioned to appeal to and reach different target groups.

Question- Is restricting food advertising and promotion desirable or doable today? Is using marketing for promoting healthier eating a preferable approach? What other strategies might be used to alter the marketing environment in order to improve eating behaviors?

Answer-I don’t believe restricting food advertising and promotion is desirable, because to the allows big name brands to appeal to and influence large groups. This is the driving force behind to success of big food brands. Due to the fact that majority of the food items that are marketed today are items that should only be consume in moderation, I do not think it is preferred by certain industries and companies to promote healthier eating. Currently there are many agencies and groups that are advocating eating healthier. In order to alter the marketing environment to improve eating behaviors would require companies to be more concern about the health effects of over consuming their processed products and less of the dollars they’ll earn promotion it.

 

Question-What kind of full systems change would reduce the incentive for the private food sector to engage in promotional marketing in the first place?

Answer-The private sector must play a large role in helping consumers select more health-promoting foods. They are presented with both opportunities and challenges by the scientific consensus that specific changes in eating habits are likely to substantially reduce the public’s risk of heart disease, cancer, and many other diet-related chronic diseases. If the private food sector had to fully disclose the actual risk involved with the consumption and/or over consumption of their products it would reduce incentive for the private food sector to engage in promotional marketing.

Question-To what extent is it a free speech issue to allow marketers to put out whatever messages they wish, targeting whomever they wish, with whatever frequency they wish? What about if they mask their identities?

Answer-It becomes a free speech issue when marketers are purposely fabricating the benefits and risk associated with the consumption or use of their products. Marketers should not be able to mask their identities, because I feel if markets chose not to identify themselves then it would cause issues of trust and discernment associated with that particular product or brand.

 
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400 Word Answer

Keohane and Olson, Chapter 5, Question 6: In the international treaty “game” described by Keohane & Olmstead Figure 5.5, both countries would be better off if each contributed to the clean-up of a shared pollution problem, but this is not what we expect to happen. Why is this better outcome unlikely to occur?

Assignment Instructions:

Your response should show depth and detail and should reference assigned reading materials (use citations where possible at least 3 references including the book chapter).  Citing real world examples will be helpful in meeting the minimum 350 to 400-word length requirement.  Include citations and references in accordance with APA guidelines.

Must be Plagiarism Free!!!

 
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Soil Cycling

Soil Cycling

Soil Cycling

Soil is very important for nutrient cycling and is an integral part of biogeochemical cycles.  For each of the biogeochemical cycles you have learned (carbon, nitrogen, sulfur, phosphorus, hydrologic) answer/describe the following questions as it relates to soil and biogeochemical cycles.

1) In what forms (compounds/molecules/states/phases) does each exist within soil? (1 pt)

  • Nitrogen

Ammonium (NH4+)
Nitrogen exists in soil as ammonium, a positively charged ion readily absorbed by plants. It forms through organic matter decomposition.

Nitrate (NO3-)
Nitrate, a negatively charged ion, is another key form of nitrogen. It results from nitrification of ammonium by soil bacteria.

Organic Nitrogen
Organic nitrogen is found in soil organic matter, including proteins, amino acids, and humus. It mineralizes into ammonium.

Nitrogen Gas (N2)
Nitrogen gas exists in soil air spaces. Soil bacteria convert it into usable forms through nitrogen fixation.

  • Phosphorus

Phosphate Ions (H2PO4-, HPO42-)
Phosphorus in soil primarily exists as phosphate ions. Plants absorb these ions directly from soil solution.

Organic Phosphorus
Organic phosphorus resides in soil organic matter. Microorganisms decompose it, releasing phosphate ions for plant use.

Calcium Phosphate Minerals
Phosphorus also exists in insoluble minerals like calcium phosphate. These minerals slowly dissolve, releasing phosphate ions.

  • Potassium

Potassium Ions (K+)
Potassium exists in soil as potassium ions. These ions are easily absorbed by plant roots from the soil solution.

Fixed Potassium
Fixed potassium resides in clay minerals. It becomes available to plants through weathering and soil microbial activity.

Organic Potassium
Organic matter contains organic potassium. Microorganisms decompose it, releasing potassium ions into the soil solution.

  • Sulfur

Sulfate Ions (SO42-)
Sulfur primarily exists in soil as sulfate ions. Plants absorb these ions from the soil solution.

Organic Sulfur
Organic sulfur is found in soil organic matter. Microbial decomposition releases sulfate ions from these compounds.

Elemental Sulfur (S)
Elemental sulfur exists in soil, often from fertilizers. Soil bacteria oxidize it to sulfate, making it plant-available.

  • Calcium

Calcium Ions (Ca2+)
Calcium in soil exists as calcium ions. These ions are readily absorbed by plant roots.

Calcium Carbonate (CaCO3)
Calcium carbonate is a common soil mineral. It neutralizes soil acidity and provides calcium ions upon dissolution.

Calcium Phosphate
Calcium also exists in calcium phosphate compounds. These compounds release calcium ions slowly as they dissolve.

  • Magnesium

Magnesium Ions (Mg2+)
Magnesium exists in soil primarily as magnesium ions. Plants absorb these ions from the soil solution.

Magnesium Carbonate (MgCO3)
Magnesium carbonate is a mineral form of magnesium. It dissolves slowly, providing a steady supply of magnesium ions.

Organic Magnesium
Organic matter contains organic magnesium. Microbial decomposition releases magnesium ions for plant uptake.

2) What role or importance does each cycle play in regard to nutrient cycling?  To organisms? (1.5 pts)

3) Describe what most plays a role in the cycling of each? (organisms? chemical reactions? other?; 1.5 pts)

4) Describe two different examples of how different cycles may interact with one another in the soil. (1 pt)

5) Describe South Florida soil.  Particularly address the layers of soil (O-A-E-B-C-bedrock) present (or absent) and its constituents (what it is made of).  Do not just copy and paste this answer from a website, even if you properly cite it…describe in your own words. (1 pt)

References

https://www.soils.org/membership/divisions/

https://sarep.ucdavis.edu/sustainable-ag

 
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UNIT V, VI & VIII

Course Syllabus

Course Description

An examination of advanced practical theory as it applies to the classical industrial hygiene field. Review an array of investigative, scientific, engineering, organizational, and social skills that are necessary to effectively control occupational and environmental health hazards.

Course Textbook(s)

Fuller, T. P. (2015). Essentials of industrial hygiene. Itasca, IL: National Safety Council.

Course Learning Outcomes

Upon completion of this course, students should be able to:

1. Summarize the historical underpinnings of the field of industrial hygiene. 2. Examine the role of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), National Institute for Occupational

Safety and Health (NIOSH), and other relevant organizations that influence workplace safety and health. 3. Assess toxicological principles related to industrial hygiene issues. 4. Compare various occupational exposure limits (OELs) and their uses. 5. Explain key industrial hygiene concepts such as routes of entry and hierarchy of controls. 6. Examine different types of industrial hazards commonly addressed by the industrial hygienist. 7. Evaluate common industrial hygiene related hazard assessment and control strategies. 8. Apply industrial hygiene management principles and practices to workplace situations.

Credits

Upon completion of this course, the students will earn 3 hours of college credit.

Course Structure

1. Study Guide: Course units contain a Study Guide that provide students with the learning outcomes, unit lesson, required reading assignments, and supplemental resources.

2. Learning Outcomes: Each unit contains Learning Outcomes that specify the measurable skills and knowledge students should gain upon completion of the unit.

3. Unit Lesson: Unit Lessons, which are located in the Study Guide, discuss lesson material. 4. Reading Assignments: Units contain Reading Assignments from one or more chapters from the textbook and/or

outside resources. 5. Suggested Reading: Suggested Readings are listed within the Study Guide. Students are encouraged to read the

resources listed if the opportunity arises, but they will not be tested on their knowledge of the Suggested Readings. 6. Learning Activities (Non-Graded): Non-Graded Learning Activities are provided to aid students in their course of

study. 7. Journals: Students are required to submit Journals in Units I-VIII. Journals provide students the opportunity to reflect

critically on course concepts and ideas. Specific information about accessing the Journal rubric is provided below. 8. Unit Assessments: This course contains Unit Assessments, which test student knowledge on important aspects of

the course. These tests may come in many different forms, ranging from multiple choice to written response questions.

9. Unit Assignments: Students are required to submit for grading Unit Assignments. Specific information and instructions regarding these assignments are provided below. Grading rubrics are included with each assignment. Specific information about accessing these rubrics is provided below.

10. Ask the Professor: This communication forum provides you with an opportunity to ask your professor general or

MOS 6301, Advanced Industrial

Hygiene

MOS 6301, Advanced Industrial Hygiene 1

 

 

Agency for Toxic Substances & Disease Registry (http://www.atsdr.cdc.gov/substances/index.asp) Occupational Safety and Health Administration (https://www.osha.gov/chemicaldata/)

Information about accessing the grading rubric for this assignment is provided below.

Unit IV Essay

After reading the Unit IV Lesson and your assigned readings, choose three substances that were discussed. One substance must be a gas/vapor hazard, one must be an aerosol hazard, and one must be a biological hazard.

Write a minimum of one page for each hazard you choose (a minimum of three pages total), which summarizes the following information:

Explain whether the substance is a chemical or biological hazard, and explain how you determined that. Explain the key chemical properties (vapor pressure, vapor density, molecular weight, relative size) as applicable, and describe how these properties affect the different routes of exposure. Based on the chemical properties, how would you identify which exposure route is the most important? Analyze how the substance could enter the body through the dermal route, and discuss why the dermal route would or would not be important. Describe the region of the respiratory system where deposition would be expected (only for the aerosol hazard).

You should use your textbook and resources from the CSU Online Library to obtain information for this assignment. You must use proper APA formatting for all references that you use. The title page and reference page do not count toward meeting the required page count.

Information about accessing the grading rubric for this assignment is provided below.

Unit V Article Review

In the Health and Medical Collection database within the CSU Online Library, locate and read the following article:

Swierczynska-Machura, D., Brzeznicki, S., Nowakowska-Swirta, E., Walusiak-Skorupa, J., Wittczak, T., Dudek, W., . . . Palczynski, C. (2015). Occupational exposure to diisocyanates in polyurethane foam factory workers. International Journal of Occupational Medicine and Environmental Health, 28(6), 985-998.

Write a summary of the article that addresses the following variables:

Summarize the industrial hygiene sampling procedures that were used in the study to evaluate a chemical hazard. Explain the results of each of the sampling procedures used, how those results were used to evaluate occupational exposures, and the potential health effects of chemical hazards. Provide your opinion as to which of the sampling procedures used in the study provided the most accurate and precise information about the occupational exposures of the workers and potential health effects. Explain why you chose one particular sampling procedure over the others.

You should use the textbook and resources from the CSU Online Library to obtain information for this assignment. Your article review must be a minimum of three pages in length, not counting the title page and reference page. Use APA style when writing the paper, making certain to include in-text citations and references.

Information about accessing the grading rubric for this assignment is provided below.

Unit VI Scholarly Activity

In the following assignment, you will be given two different questions concerning the material covered in this unit. Each question should be answered using a minimum of 250 words. Any resources, including your textbook, that are utilized to answer the questions should be cited and referenced using APA formatting. A template has been provided here for you to use to answer the questions. Enter your answers into the template, and upload the template into the assignment area within Blackboard. The questions you will be answering are shown below (and in the template).

The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) currently has a permissible exposure limit (PEL) for noise of 90 dBA at an 8-hour time-weighted average (TWA) exposure with an action level of 50% of that exposure. OSHA uses a 5 dB exchange rate (doubling rate); this means that if the exposure increases from 90 dBA to 95 dBA, the allowed exposure time decreases to one-half—from 8 hours to 4 hours.

The National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) and the American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists (ACGIH) recommend using an exposure limit of 85 dBA instead of 90 dBA and also recommend using a 3 dB exchange rate. These levels are much more protective than the levels currently used by OSHA.

Discuss the merits of each of the two methods. Provide your opinion as to which of the approaches you believe should be used. Support your answer with at least one professional/scholarly reference.

OSHA does not currently have a regulation specifically covering ergonomic issues. OSHA has issued several guidelines for some specific industries. Consider a workplace you are familiar with where there is a potential for repetitive motion injuries.

Discuss what methods you would use to identify tasks that would present the greatest risk for repetitive motion injuries. How would you establish an ergonomics program to address the issues? What would be the greatest obstacles in establishing the ergonomics program?

MOS 6301, Advanced Industrial Hygiene 3

 

 

Information about accessing the grading rubric for this assignment is provided below.

Unit VIII Research Paper

For the following research paper assignment, you have been asked to perform an evaluation of employee exposures at a small automobile parts manufacturing facility. The manufacturing processes include two metal presses, two machining stations, three welding stations, a small paint booth, and a shipping/receiving area. There are two employees working at each press, one person working at each machining station, one person working at each welding station, two people working in the paint booth, and four employees working in the shipping/receiving area.

One of the presses is a 2,000-ton press, and the other press is a 200-ton press. The 2,000-ton press is the greatest noise source for the facility. The machining area uses a metal working fluid. The safety data sheet (SDS) for the metal working fluid is attached here. All welding is performed on stainless steel. The painting booth uses a powder coating operation, but the employees use xylene and methyl ethyl ketone (MEK) to clean the parts prior to the powder coating operation. At the end of the shift, one of the employees uses 1,3 butadiene to clean the nozzles for the paint booth. The facility uses two electric forklifts to move materials between the production area and the storage warehouse and between the warehouse and the shipping area. All employees work an 8-hour shift.

Part 1:

Using the information on anticipation and control we studied in the textbook, identify the hazards that are present in the facility. In your discussion, explain why you chose the hazards, and describe whether you believe the hazards to be actual hazards or potential hazards (which require further evaluation). Describe the specific location(s) at the facility where the hazards are located, and determine how many employees are potentially at risk in those areas.

Your response for Part 1 should be at least one page in length.

Part 2:

Using the information on evaluation that we studied in the textbook, summarize how you would measure the personal exposures to the hazards that you identified in Part 1. Use the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) website (https://www.osha.gov/dts/sltc/methods/toc.html) or the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) website (http://www.cdc.gov/niosh/docs/2003-154/default.html) to select the specific sampling and analytical method that would work best to evaluate any chemical hazards you identified. Provide a summary of the sampling media you would use, include the sampling flow rate, discuss how long you would sample, and explain how you would calibrate the sampling train. Include a discussion about why you selected the specific sampling and analytical method.

Your response to Part 2 should be at least one page in length.

Part 3:

Access the attached sampling results here. For each set of results, perform the following actions:

Calculate the 8-hour time weighted average (TWA) exposure. Compare the results to the appropriate OSHA permissible exposure limit (PEL). Determine which results exceed an established OSHA PEL.

Write a one-page summary of the sampling results; document the exposures that exceeded an OSHA PEL, and identify those areas that you believe will require the application of controls to reduce risk. Include your calculations, include a list of the OSHA PELs you compared the results to, and explain how you decided that an exposure exceeded an OSHA PEL.

Part 4:

Using OSHA’s hierarchy of controls, recommend the control methods that you believe would be the most effective for reducing the risks associated with the exposures that exceeded the OSHA PEL above. Explain how you would implement the controls and how you would evaluate the effectiveness of the controls. Also, discuss any interim control methods you would recommend for the facility.

This section should be at least one page in length.

Include a reference page and in-text citations for all sources you used in this project, including your textbook, using proper APA format.

Information about accessing the grading rubric for this assignment is provided below.

APA Guidelines

The application of the APA writing style shall be practical, functional, and appropriate to each academic level, with the primary purpose being the documentation (citation) of sources. CSU requires that students use APA style for certain papers and projects. Students should always carefully read and follow assignment directions and review the associated grading rubric when available. Students can find CSU’s Citation Guide by clicking here. This document includes examples and sample papers and provides information on how to contact the CSU Success Center.

Grading Rubrics

MOS 6301, Advanced Industrial Hygiene 4

 

  • MOS 6301, Advanced Industrial Hygiene
  • Course Syllabus
    • Course Description
    • Course Textbook(s)
    • Course Learning Outcomes
    • Credits
    • Course Structure
    • CSU Online Library
    • Unit Assignments
      • Unit I PowerPoint Presentation
      • Unit II Essay
      • Unit IV Essay
      • Unit V Article Review
      • Unit VI Scholarly Activity
      • Unit VIII Research Paper
    • APA Guidelines
    • Grading Rubrics
    • Communication Forums
    • Schedule/Grading
 
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ENV100T Week 1 WileyPLUS Weekly Exam -SCORE 100 PERCENT

Question 1

Why is a risk analysis usually performed in solving environmental problems?

To provide public awareness and endorsement.

To monitor the initial assessment and modeling of the problem.

To solicit public opinion about how evidence should be interpreted when selection a course of action.

To analyze the potential effect of an intervention versus doing nothing.

Question 2

A state agency has contacted you to do a scientific assessment of kudzu in a nature preserve in southern Georgia. They are concerned about the effects of the non-native invasive vine on a small rare plant that grows on the forest floor in the preserve, but which is found nowhere else in the state. Kudzu is only growing in the east side of the preserve because it hasn’t yet had time to invade further. In order to assess the effects of kudzu on the rare plant, you set up the following experiment:

Site 1. On the east side of the park with the kudzu, you set up ten 1m × 1m plots on the forest floor. In each plot you count the number of individuals of the rare plant.

Site 2. On the west side of the park without the kudzu, you set up ten 1m × 1m plots of the forest floor. In each plot you count the number of individuals of the rare plant.

Based solely on the data represented in the associated table, what can you report to the agency that contracted you to do this study?

Site Mean number of individuals of rare plant per plot

Site 1 1.7

Site 2 4.2

Kudzu is shading out the rare plant.

The rare plant is unaffected by the presence of the kudzu.

Fewer individuals of the rare plant grow in the presence of kudzu when compared to areas without kudzu.

It will be impossible to remove kudzu from the park because it grows too fast.

Question 3

The resource shown here can be classified as:

1. perpetually renewable

2. nonrenewable

3. renewable only if they are replanted and given time to grow

1 only

2 only

3 only

both 1 and 2

Question 4

What does this graph suggests about our current use of fossil fuels?

We are treating this resource sustainably as the number of barrels of oil consumed has increased over time.

We are depleting this non-renewable resource at a rate faster today than 20 years ago.

The price of oil will continue to decrease as there is more oil supply than there is demand.

We have found many new sources of oil as reflected in the increase in oil consumption.

Question 5

What does the phrase “environmental sustainability” imply?

The actions of humans directly impact the wellbeing of the natural environment.

Future generations will have the resources necessary for quality of life.

A shared global responsibility is necessary for conservation practices.

All of the above are implied by environmental sustainability.

Question 6

Which of the following ecological footprints is the largest?

Ecological footprint of a single individual in U.S.

Ecological footprint of a single individuals in France

Ecological footprint of a single individuals in India

Ecological footprint of 6 individuals in India

Question 7

The photograph below is an image of Times Square in New York City. Based on the photo, what do you think is USA’s most likely contribution to environmental problems?

1. Environmental sustainability due to the population density in NYC

2. People overpopulation due to the population density in NYC

3. Consumption overpopulation as reflected by the advertising billboards

1 only

2 only

3 only

1 and 2 are both reflected in the photograph

Question 8

What is the environmental significance of the process of “consumption”?

Consumption can outstrip the natural resources available and lead to overexploitation of the environment.

Extravagant consumption can create an environment of raising one’s status among peers.

The process of consumption is an economic act, providing the “demand” necessary for the “supply” of the environment.

Consumption can generate economic growth that relies significantly on the importation of natural resources, which benefits the environments of less-developed countries.

Question 9

A personal perspective based on a collection of basic values and beliefs about how the environment works, that helps us make sense of our place and purpose in it, and determine right and wrong behaviors describes:

Voluntary simplicity

Deep ecology worldview

Western worldview

Environmental worldview

Question 10

What does the photograph BEST represent?

A deep ecology worldview.

Sustainable consumption.

Child labor.

Poverty.

Question 11

Widespread adoption of sustainable consumption at the global level will not be easy because:

sustainable consumption requires the eradication of poverty which requires that poor people increase their consumption of certain essential resources to improve the quality of their lives and these resources are no longer available.

sustainable consumption requires that the consumption patterns of people in highly developed countries must change to allow for the eradication of poverty and such changes in the lifestyles of people in highly developed countries is a challenge.

sustainable consumption requires that everyone embrace voluntary simplicity on a compulsory basis and while this is supported by politicians, economists are not in support.

sustainable consumption requires the excessive reliance on global resources that will result in a tragedy of the commons.

Question 12

Which of the actions indicated in the photographs below would be the BEST way to address the goal of mitigating climate change for achieving sustainable living:

Energy Neutral Construction

Family Planning in Egypt

Bicycle Rack in Amsterdam

Restoration in Indonesia

Energy Neutral Construction

Family Planning in Egypt

Bicycle Rack in Amsterdam

Restoration in Indonesia

Question 13

A type of sustainable consumption which recognizes that individual happiness and quality of life are not necessarily linked to the accumulation of material goods but rather that a person’s values and character define that individual more than how many things he or she own is known as:

environmental ethics

voluntary simplicity

sustainable development

environmental justice

Question 14

What rights does environmental justice seek to provide?

Adequate protection from environmental hazards.

Adequate wealth to live in clean neighborhoods.

The right to follow western worldview ideas.

Ability to live the deep ecology lifestyle.

Question 15

Environmental sustainability implies:

the actions of humans directly impact the wellbeing of the natural environment

future generations will have the resources necessary for quality of life

the environment can function indefinitely without going into a decline from the stresses imposed by human society on natural systems

all of these choices

Question 16

Which of the following is the BEST example of sustainable consumption?

Constructing a house on farmland on the edge of town and carpooling to work.

Flying to the Bahamas for a weekend getaway.

Preparing a meal at home with food bought at the local farmers market.

Purchasing five pairs of shoes at a local minority owned business.

Question 17

National income accounts are incomplete estimates of national economic performance because national income accounts do NOT include

gross domestic product

net domestic product

estimates of imported goods and services

estimates of external costs such as natural resource depletion and the environmental cost of economic activities

Question 18

Which of the following was probably the MOST significant event in 1999 to impact the environment?

The Kyoto Protocol was signed by the United States.

The Exxon Valdez created the world’s largest oil spill.

World human population reached 6 billion individuals.

The first Earth Day celebration was held.

Question 19

What type of pollution control strategy does the Clean Air Act mainly depend on?

command-and-control regulation.

incentive-based regulation.

relative control regulation.

environmental impact statements.

Question 20

What is the BEST definition of preservation?

Setting aside land and natural resources.

Careful management of land and resources.

Using land and natural resources based on current needs.

Multiple use management of land and natural resources.

Question 21

The study of how people use their limited resources to try to satisfy their unlimited wants is:

business analysis.

model testing.

hypothesis development.

economics.

Question 22

In economic terms, oils and chemicals burning in the Cuyahoga River would represent:

a national income account

overuse of a sink

overuse of a source

an increase in natural capita

Question 23

What does the diagram below illustrate?

EIS

NEPA

NIMBY

Kyoto Protocol

Question 24

All of the following endangered species have recovered enough to be removed from the endangered species list except:

American alligator

California gray whale

Bald eagle

Manatee

Question 25

Any part of the natural environment used to promote the welfare of people or other species is called:

conservation

preservation

a resource

multiple use management

 
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Essay Questions Must Use APA Citations And Short Answers Of 50 Words Is Okay. 1. What Is The Significance Of Malaria Worldwide,…

Essay Questions Must use APA citations and short answers of 50 words is okay. 1. What is the significance of malaria worldwide, and what are some recent developments in the battle against the disease? 2. What are the environmental advantages of recycling? 3. List the major components of MSW. 4. Define pollution, pollutant, nonbiodegradable and environment. 5. What are the “dirty dozen” POPs? Whay are they on the list? Multiple Choice 1. If the precautionary principle had been applied to the evidence of the dangerous health effects of smoking tobacco from the 1950s to the 1970s, we would still be waiting for the final word and no government actions would have been taken.  tobacco companies would have been given much more time to research the health effects before any government regulations were passed.  cigarette manufacturers would have been required to demonstrate that smoking was safe and government regulations would have come much earlier.  more tobacco products would have been sold. 2. If the precautionary principle is applied, a pharmaceutical company that discovers a new drug for blood pressure must demonstrate the safety of the drug before it is approved.  the need for the new drug before it is approved.  that the drug is cost-effective before it is approved.  that the drug poses no environmental risks. 3. Examining an old abandoned home several months after a flood, a relief worker suddenly experiences difficulty breathing. At the hospital, she learns that she experiencedAnswer  a chronic respiratory illness more common in the developed world.  a chronic respiratory illness more common in the developing world.  an acute respiratory illness more common in the developed world.  an acute respiratory illness more common in the developing world. 4. Which one of the following has been declining globally over the past several decades?Answer  nitrous oxide levels in the troposphere  methane levels in the troposphere  halocarbon levels in the troposphere  pH of the worlds oceans 5. Which of the following illustrates a risk assessment of climate system change? Answer  using natural gas instead of coal to generate electricity  using solar and nuclear power to generate electricity instead of burning coal  measuring the levels of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere  determining what sorts of crops will be better suited to the new climate 6. Because many places that people build homes are at high risk of a physical disaster, some people have suggested that town zoning boards identify such high risk environments as “stupid zones.” Which one of the following would probably not be located in such a “stupid zone”?Answer  A new home is built in Iowa, about 2 feet above normal water levels and 1,000 feet away from the Mississippi River.  A log cabin home is constructed in a dry, drought-prone, coniferous forest in California.  A new home in South Dakota sits 200 feet up a hillside, overlooking a vast natural prairie.  Along the coast of southern Florida, a retired couple builds their dream home. 7. Which one of the following is not an example of geoengineering?Answer  injecting sulfate aerosols into the stratosphere  erecting large carbon dioxide scrubbers to sequester carbon dioxide in deep reservoirs  seeding the oceans with iron to promote the growth of phytoplankton  erecting large fields of wind turbines to generate electricity to power automobiles 8. One of the greatest risks of diarrheal disease outbreaks in industrialized countries results fromAnswer  poorly trained public health inspectors in the food industry.  contamination in the mass production of food.  the increased demand for organic products.  the addition of preservatives in foods 9. Secondary air pollutants are formed byAnswer  the evaporation of solvents and gasoline.  the incomplete combustion of fuels.  primary pollutants reacting with other compounds in the atmosphere.  radioactive substances such as radon reacting with primary pollutants. 10. Which one of the following generally increases the pollution of the air?Answer  bright sunlight  generation of hydroxyl radicals  sea salt aerosols entering the air over an ocean  gases released by a volcanic eruption 11. On average in the United States, every day each person produces aboutAnswer  10-20 gallons of wastewater containing about a gallon of waste.  50-100 gallons of wastewater containing about three gallons of waste.  150-200 gallons of wastewater containing less than a half gallon of waste.  300-400 gallons of wastewater containing about 10 gallons of waste. 12. Air pollution in a heavily industrialized region would be reduced and the air would be healthier if that region Answer  received less rain.  received less sunshine.  were next to an ocean.  used more coal to generate electricity. 13. Duckweed is a small, flowering plant that floats at the water’s surface. It tends to grow best when nutrient levels are high. When duckweed is abundant, it forms tight mats that cover the surface of ponds and lakes.Consider a situation in which spring storms bring an influx of water and nutrients into a small 4-acre pond, and duckweed populations suddenly explode. Duckweed covers the surface of the pond, but is regularly washed over the spillway and replaced by the growth of new duckweed plants.Use the paragraph above to answer the following questions.In this pond, experiencing cultural eutrophication, the growth of this duckweed willAnswer  add nutrients to the pond and encourage the growth of phytoplankton.  remove nutrients from the pond and encourage the growth of phytoplankton.  add nutrients to the pond and slow the growth of phytoplankton.  remove nutrients from the pond and slow the growth of phytoplankton. 14. In developed countries, nonrecycled municipal solid waste (MSW) is more likely to beAnswer  burned when the population densities are high.  burned when the population densities are low.  buried when the population densities are high.  buried when the population is located near an ocean. 15. Lakes in the Midwestern United States that experience sustained acid precipitation over hundreds of years will graduallyAnswer  increase their pH because of the buffering effects of limestone.  increase their pH because of the depletion of the buffering effects of limestone.  decrease their pH because of the buffering effects of limestone.  decrease their pH because of the depletion of the buffering effects of limestone. 16. Small urban gardens in vacant lots and on rooftops are increasing in number. These gardensAnswer  are able to make most cities agriculturally self-sufficient.  recycle most of the compost generated by the city’s sewage treatment facilities.  are able to recapture most of the carbon dioxide in the city, making the cities carbon neutral.  recycle compost, create jobs for unskilled workers, and provide limited amounts of fresh produce. 17. As a result of the lessons learned from the 1984 Bhopal, India, disaster, the 1986 EPCRA requiresAnswer  all companies handling toxic wastes to be located at least one mile from any city border.  emergency response teams in every company that makes a product in the United States.  companies that handle more than 5 tons of hazardous materials to provide detailed information to local emergency planning committees.  All of the responses are correct. 18. Lingering in a long line at the dry cleaners, waiting for holiday clothing, a woman starts to feel dizzy and tired with a quickly developing headache. Someone suggests that her symptoms might be from breathing something used in the shop. A substance that can cause such symptoms, and is commonly used in dry cleaning, is aAnswer  heavy metal.  halogenated hydrocarbon.  radioactive hydrocarbon.  safe and gentle natural compound. 19. New REACH Regulations approved by the European Union change the way chemical safety is determined. Unlike the United States approach, the Reach Regulations require that the safety of these chemicals is the obligation ofAnswer  industry and not the federal government.  the consumer and not the federal government.  the federal government and not the industry.  cities and states and not the industry. 20. Urban sprawl has resulted inAnswer  wildlife habitat fragmentation.  decreased reliance on fossil fuels.  decreased production of greenhouse gases.  increased dependence on family farms for food. 21. High crime rates in U.S. cities are generally the result ofAnswer  high population densities.  higher levels of education.  poor social conditions.  the lack of public transportation. 22. In January 2010, three California Condors died when they accidentally ate lead ammunition used to kill the animals they were consuming. The California Condors’ deaths represent an example ofAnswer  acute toxic effects of consuming high levels of lead.  chronic toxic effects of lead resulting from biomagnification.  chronic toxic effects of lead resulting from bioaccumulation.  chronic toxic effects of lead resulting from biomagnification and bioaccumulation. 23. Consider a comparison of people living well in densely populated cities versus people living well in less dense suburbs. For the people living in the cities, it isAnswer  less expensive to provide social services and utilities and impacts the environment less.  less expensive to provide social services and utilities but impacts the environment more.  more expensive to provide social services and utilities and impacts the environment more.  more expensive to provide social services and utilities but impacts the environment less. 3 points  Question 30 24. The safe movement of hazardous materials by rail or highway in the United States is regulated byAnswer  individual states and cities.  the Department of Transportation.  the regulations of the RCRA.  the Justice Department.
 
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5 Questions 2 Parts Each

Instructions: On the following pages

 

(1) WRITE IN THE QUESTION IN FULL

(2) Answer the question without copying word for word from the book, this means discuss like in a rational conversation. Do NOT expect full credit for one word or phrase answers.

 

(3) In ADDITION FOR EACH QUESTION – what does this topic teach you or how have you seen something about this topic in the real world that pertains to home and work. Do NOT Split the answer just to fill space, you must add value to this.

 

20 points each

 

1 point off per page if your name is not on each page

 

DUE AT START OF CLASS

Penalty 10 points per day late or portion thereof – submit via dropbox for this quiz.

CHAPTER 19:

 

ENTER QUESTION: WRITE IN THE QUESTION IN FULL WITH PAGE # Q #

Page 396 Question 4

 

What are industrial smog and photochemical smog, and how do they differ?

 

 

MAIN ANSWER: Answer the question without copying word for word from the book, this means discuss like in a rational conversation. Do NOT expect full credit for one word or phrase answers. Cover the Who, What, Where, When, Why How as much as possible.

 

 

YOUR OBSERVATION(s): In ADDITION FOR EACH QUESTION – what does this topic teach you or how have you seen something about this topic in the real world that pertains to home and work. Do NOT Split the answer just to fill space, you must add value to this.

 

CHAPTER 20:

 

ENTER QUESTION: WRITE IN THE QUESTION IN FULL WITH PAGE # Q #

Page 414 Question 7

 

Suggest some ways in which seasonal changes in plant growth is Canada might affect songbird populations in Mexico.

 

MAIN ANSWER: Answer the question without copying word for word from the book, this means discuss like in a rational conversation. Do NOT expect full credit for one word or phrase answers. Cover the Who, What, Where, When, Why How as much as possible.

 

YOUR OBSERVATION(s): In ADDITION FOR EACH QUESTION – what does this topic teach you or how have you seen something about this topic in the real world that pertains to home and work. Do NOT Split the answer just to fill space, you must add value to this.

 

CHAPTER 21:

 

ENTER QUESTION: WRITE IN THE QUESTION IN FULL WITH PAGE # Q #

Page 437 Question 8

 

Tell whether each of the following represents points source population or nonpoint source pollution : fertilizer runoff from farms, thermal pollution from a power plant, urban runoff, sewage from a ship, erosion sediments from deforestation.

 

 

MAIN ANSWER: Answer the question without copying word for word from the book, this means discuss like in a rational conversation. Do NOT expect full credit for one word or phrase answers. Cover the Who, What, Where, When, Why How as much as possible.

 

YOUR OBSERVATION(s): In ADDITION FOR EACH QUESTION – what does this topic teach you or how have you seen something about this topic in the real world that pertains to home and work. Do NOT Split the answer just to fill space, you must add value to this.

 

CHAPTER 22:

 

ENTER QUESTION: WRITE IN THE QUESTION IN FULL WITH PAGE # Q #

Page 455 Question 8

 

Biological control is often much more successful on a small island than on a continent. Offer at least one reason why this might be the case.

 

 

MAIN ANSWER: Answer the question without copying word for word from the book, this means discuss like in a rational conversation. Do NOT expect full credit for one word or phrase answers. Cover the Who, What, Where, When, Why How as much as possible.

 

YOUR OBSERVATION(s): In ADDITION FOR EACH QUESTION – what does this topic teach you or how have you seen something about this topic in the real world that pertains to home and work. Do NOT Split the answer just to fill space, you must add value to this.

 

 

CHAPTER 23:

 

ENTER QUESTION: WRITE IN THE QUESTION IN FULL WITH PAGE # Q #

Page 473 Question 9

 

What are the goals, strengths, and weaknesses of the Superfund program?

 

 

MAIN ANSWER: Answer the question without copying word for word from the book, this means discuss like in a rational conversation. Do NOT expect full credit for one word or phrase answers. Cover the Who, What, Where, When, Why How as much as possible.

 

YOUR OBSERVATION(s): In ADDITION FOR EACH QUESTION – what does this topic teach you or how have you seen something about this topic in the real world that pertains to home and work. Do NOT Split the answer just to fill space, you must add value to this.

 
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