Biology 2 – Hierarchies Of Life Lab Questions

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Hierarchies of Life

Experiment 1: Classification of Common Objects

Data Tables (15 points)

Post-Lab Questions

1. Did you find that the items grouped together as you worked down the flow chart had similar characteristics in terms of their appearance? What about function? (10 points)

A lot of the groups had similar characteristics and function, until I looked deeper into then as I continued down the list of questions. For example, a candle and a Scentsy are similar in function and characteristics, as they both give off pleasant smells. But if you were to ask if they use fire, you’d be able to differentiate the two.

2. Do you feel that the questions asked were appropriate? What questions would you have asked to devise this classification flow chart? What objects would be grouped together with your system? (10 points)

I had to look over the chart a few times and soon made sense of the flow. I found myself conflicted on some of the answers as well, not agreeing with some entirely. For example, I don’t think a hex nut is cylindrical or round. It has sides, similar to pens and pencils where the style if hex like.

3. Do you think it is more or less challenging to classify living organisms in comparison to objects? Why? (10 points)

 

4. Pick 10 household items (e.g. spoon, book, paper clip, etc.) and design a taxonomic classification system to categorize them, similar to the one in Figure 8. Make sure you ask enough yes/no questions so that each item ends up in its own box or category at the end. (10 points)

Experiment 2: Classification of Organisms

Data Tables (10 points)

Table 2: Classification of Organisms

Organism Domain Kingdom Defined Nucleus Mobile Photosynthesis Unicellular
Salmonella Bacteria Genus No Yes Yes Yes
Ants Eukarya Animalia

 Yes Yes No No
Zoo Flagellate Eukarya Protozoa Yes Yes No Yes
Wolf Eukarya Animalia Yes Yes No No
Morning Glory Eukarya Plantae Yes No Yes No
Euglena Eukarya Protozoa Yes Yes Yes Yes
Shiitake Eukarya Fungi Yes No No No
Pseudomonas Bacteria Bacteria No Yes No Yes
Spruce Eukarya Planta Yes No Yes No
Death Cap Mushroom Eukarya Fungi Yes No No No

Post-Lab Questions

1. Did this series of questions correctly organize each organism? Why or why not? (10 points)

2. Do you feel that the questions asked were appropriate? What questions would you have asked? (10 points)

3. Which kingdom do you believe is most challenging to categorize correctly? Explain your answer (10 points)

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Lab 5: Weather And Climate Change

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Lab 5 Weather and Climate Change

54

Weather and Climate Change

Introduction

The Earth’s atmosphere is composed of 21% oxygen (O2), 78% Nitrogen (N2), and ~1% other gases

(including water vapor, argon, carbon dioxide, hydrogen, and helium). Oxygen is essential for life and is used

by most organisms for cellular respiration while carbon dioxide is used by plants and certain bacteria for pho-

tosynthesis.

Our atmosphere is composed of five layers:

1. Troposphere – nearest to the Earth’s surface; layer in which weather occurs (rising and falling air);

comprises one half of total atmosphere; air pressure is decreased to 10% of that at sea level.

Concepts to Explore

 Atmosphere

 Weather

 The Water Cycle

 Climate

Figure 1: Clouds are visible accumulation of water droplets that accumulate in the Earth’s lowest

layer of the atmosphere, the troposphere.

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Weather and Climate Change 2. Stratosphere – contains the ozone layer (important for UV ray absorption).

3. Mesosphere – layer which meteors burn up in upon entering the Earth’s atmosphere.

4. Ionosphere/Thermosphere – locations of auroras (e.g., aurora borealis); layer in which the space shut-

tle orbits.

5. Exosphere – upper limit of the Earth’s atmosphere; layer where Earth’s atmosphere merges with outer

space.

Weather is the state of the atmosphere at a given time and place and includes temperature, pressure, the

type and amount of precipitation, wind, clouds, etc. Weather conditions can change hour to hour, day to day,

and season to season. Our weather is caused by uneven heating of the Earth from the sun. The resulting

temperature differentials generate wind that forces warm air to flow to regions of cooler air. This flow can oc-

cur both horizontally across the surface of the Earth (e.g., from tropical to polar regions) and vertically, caus-

ing clouds, rain, and storms to develop as warm, moist air cools and condenses as it rises. In addition to driv-

ing our weather, the sun’s energy also is responsible for regulating how water moves on, above, and below

the Earth’s surface through the water cycle.

The water cycle describes how the amount of water on Earth remains constant over time. Water exists in

three different states (in solid form as ice, as liquid water, and in a gas as water vapor) and cycles continu-

ously through these states. The temperature and pressure determine what state water is in. The water cycle

consists of the following processes:

 Evaporation of liquid water to a gas (water vapor)

Figure 2: The water cycle – can you name the steps? Refer to Lab 2 for help!

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Weather and Climate Change

 Condensation of water vapor to liquid water

 Sublimation of solid water (ice) to water vapor (think dry ice)

 Precipitation occurs when water vapor condenses to clouds/rain

 Transpiration occurs when liquid water moves through plants from roots to leaves, changes to water

vapor and is released to the atmosphere through holes (stoma) in the leaves

 Surface run-off occurs when water moves from high to low ground

 Infiltration occurs when water fills porous spaces in the soil

 Percolation occurs when ground water moves in a saturated zone below Earth’s surface

 

Clouds form at many different altitudes in the troposphere when water vapor in warm air rises and cools. The

water vapor condenses on microscopic dust particles in the atmosphere and transforms into either a liquid or

solid and is visible as clouds. Warm air can hold more water vapor than cool air. Thus, clouds often form over

the tops of mountains and over large bodies of water, since the air over these formations is typically cooler

than the surrounding air.

Figure 3: Clouds.

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Weather and Climate Change

Climate is defined as the long-term average pattern of weather in a given region. Our climate is influenced by

five components: the atmosphere, the hydrosphere (mass of liquid water), the cryosphere (mass of solid wa-

ter; ice), the land surface, and the biosphere (life on Earth). Climate change refers to the observed accelerat-

ed increase in the Earth’s temperature over the past 100 years and its predicted continued increase. The

Earth’s average temperature has increased approximately 1 – 1.5 degrees F since 1900 (see figure below)

and is projected to rise an additional approximately 3 – 10 degrees F over the next 100 years.

Changes in the Earth’s atmosphere have contributed to global warming. Global warming is due to the accu-

mulation of “greenhouse gases”: carbon dioxide (CO2) from burning fossil fuels (oil, gas, and coal); methane

(CH4) from agriculture, landfills, mining operations and gas pipelines; chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) from refrig-

erants and aerosols; and nitrous oxide from fertilizers and other chemicals. Increased temperature results in

increased evaporation, accelerated polar ice melting, increased number of extreme temperature days, heavi-

er rains/floods, and more intense storms. These changes will have important implications across public

health, infrastructure, energy, economic, and political arenas.

Figure 4: Global Temperature Anomalies. Source: www.nasa.gov

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Weather and Climate Change

Demonstration 1: Modeling the Water Cycle

In this experiment you will observe how entrapped water moves from land to the atmosphere and determine

how weather conditions affect this movement.

Procedure

1. Using a graduated cylinder, carefully pour 20 mL of warm water (60°C) into the canning jar and secure

the lid.

2. Fill the petri dish with ice and place on top of the canning jar’s lid.

3. Observe the jar every 5 minutes for 30 minutes. After 30 minutes, remove the petri dish and carefully re-

move the lid and look at the underside.

Materials

100 mL Graduated cylinder

Canning jar

Petri dish

Thermometer

*Hot water

*Water

*Ice cubes

*You must provide

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Weather and Climate Change Experiment 1: Assessing Infiltration

In this experiment, you will observe how entrapped water moves from land to the atmosphere and determine

how weather conditions affect this movement.

Procedure:

1. Record your hypothesis in post-lab question 1. Be sure to indicate how you expect the environment within

the bag to change over the course of the experiment.

2. Measure 200 mL sand into each plastic re-sealable bag.

3. Measure 200 mL room temperature water into each bag.

4. Seal each bag, leaving a bit of air in each.

5. Place 1 bag in a sunny location and 1 bag in a shady location.

6. Observe the bags after 1 hour, then again after 12 hours. Record your observations in Table 1.

Materials

(2) 9 x 12 in. Bags

250 mL Beaker

400 mL Sand

*Water

*A sunny location (window sill, outside porch, etc.)

*A shady location

*You must provide

 
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Lab 3

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Lab 3-

Your Name:

INSTRUCTIONS:

· On your own and without assistance, complete this Lab 3 Answer Sheet electronically and submit it via the Assignments Folder by the date listed in the Course Schedule (under Syllabus).

· To conduct your laboratory exercises, use the Laboratory Manual located under Course Content. Read the introduction and the directions for each exercise/experiment carefully before completing the exercises/experiments and answering the questions.

· Save your Lab 3 Answer Sheet in the following format: LastName_Lab3 (e.g., Smith_Lab3).

· You should submit your document as a Word (.doc or .docx) or Rich Text Format (.rtf) file for best compatibility.

Pre-Lab Questions

1. What is the water potential of an open beaker containing pure water?

1. Why don’t red blood cells swell or shrink in blood?

1. How do osmotic power plants work?

1. Research the structures that protect plant and animal cells from damage resulting from osmotic pressure. Write a few paragraphs explaining what they are, how they work, and where they are located.

Experiment 1: Osmosis Direction and Concentration Gradients

Data Tables

Table 5: Sucrose Concentration vs. Tubing Permeability

Band Color Sucrose % in Beaker Sucrose % in Bag Initial Volume (mL) Final Volume (mL) Net Displacement (mL)
Yellow          
Red          
Blue          
Green          

 

Post-Lab Questions

Hypotheses (write one hypothesis for each bag):

Yellow bag:

Red bag:

Blue bag:

Green bag:

1. Insert a picture of your results here:

2. Do your results support your hypotheses? Did the volume in each bag change as predicted based on the known tonicity of each bag? Explain.

3. If the results were unexpected, discuss the possible reason(s) your results deviated from your hypothesis.

4. Using the known sucrose concentrations inside each of the tubing pieces and their respective beakers, identify whether the solution inside the tube was hypotonic, hypertonic, or isotonic in comparison to the beaker solution it was placed in.

Yellow:

Red:

Blue:

Green:

5. Which tubing increased the most in volume? Why?

6. What would happen if the tubing with the yellow band was placed in a beaker of distilled water?

7. How are excess salts that accumulate in cells transferred to the blood stream so they can be removed from the body? Explain how this process works in terms of tonicity.

8. How is this experiment similar to the way a cell membrane works in the body? How is it different? Be specific with your response.

9. If you wanted water to flow out of a piece of dialysis tubing filled with a 50% sucrose solution, what would the minimum concentration of the beaker solution need to be? Explain your answer using scientific evidence.

Experiment 2: What Household Substances are Acidic or Basic?

Data Tables

Table 6: pH Values of Common Household Substances

Substances pH Prediction pH Test Strip Color
Acetic Acid (Vinegar)    
Sodium Bicarbonate Solution (Baking Soda)    
     
     
     
     

 

Post-Lab Questions

1. Insert a picture of your results here:

1. What is the purpose of determining the pH of the acetic acid and the sodium bicarbonate solution before testing the other household substances?

1. Compare and contrast acids and bases in terms of their H+ ion and OH- ion concentrations.

1. Name two acids and two bases you often use.

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Biology

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The Arsenic Life Debate  

For this forum we will examine a case study about the discovery of a bacterium capable of substituting arsenic for phosphorus in its DNA. The paper was controversial and subject to debate on very public forums such as twitter and blog posts. In this forum we will discuss the findings of the paper and examine the scientific review process.

Read through the attached case study and answer the questions posed within the document. Using your answers from the document, answer any 4 of the questions below. Write your post in a narrative format based on your answers. Original posts are due by midnight EST on Wednesday. Replies are due by midnight EST on Sunday of week 2. Answer to student questions are due by midnight on Sunday of week 3.

1) Did the reporter Alexis C Madrigal break his agreement with the journal Science by releasing his statement on Twitter? If you were responsible for Science’s public relations division would you revoke his access to future Sciencearticles ahead of the embargo? Why or why not?

2)What would Felisa need in order to convince other researchers that a life form uses arsenic in its cells and does not merely survive in the presence of (or tolerate high levels of) arsenic?

3) Given that Rosie used slightly different techniques to replicate Felisa’s work, does this refute the original arsenic life results?

4) How do you expect other researchers to react to Felisa’s work? Is she likely to suffer a professional penalty? Why or why not?

5) What is peer review in science? What are some of the strengths and imperfections of the peer review system in science?

6) Once published, should science be debated in the public realm or should science be debated in a”closed discussion forum” among scientists until a consensus can be delivered to the public? Why?

 
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Journal

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Virtual Lab: Sex-Linked Traits

Worksheet

Please make sure you have read through all of the information in the “Questions” and “Information” areas. If you come upon terms that are unfamiliar to you, please refer to your textbook for further explanation or search the word here: http://encarta.msn.com/encnet/features/dictionary/dictionaryhome.aspx

Next, complete the Punnett square activity by clicking on the laboratory notebook. Please be sure to note the possible genotypes of the various flies:

Female, red eyes Female, red eyes Female, white eyes Male, red eyes Male, white eyes
XRXR XrXR XrXr XRY XrY

When you have completed the Punnett square activity, return to the laboratory scene to begin the actual laboratory activity.

In this exercise, you will perform a Drosophila mating in order to observe sex-linked trait transmission. Please click on the shelf in the laboratory. Here you will find vials of fruit flies. On the TOP shelf, please click on one of the female vials (on the left side) and then drag it to the empty vial on the shelf below. Please repeat this step using one of the male vials (on the right side). These flies will be used as the parental (P) generation. You may switch your parent choices at any time by dragging out old selections and dragging in new flies. Use the Punnett square below to predict the genotypes/phenotypes of the offspring (Note: refer to the genotype table you created above if needed):

  XR XR
XR Genotype: XRXR

Phenotype:Red eye, female

 Genotype:XRXR

Phenotype: Red eye, female
Y Genotype:XRY

Phenotype: Red eye, male

 Genotype:XRY

Phenotype: Red eye, male

__50_% Female, red eye _0__% Female, white eye _50__% Male, red eye _0__% Male, white eye

When you are finished, click “Mate and Sort”.

You will now see information appear in the vials sitting on the next shelf below. These are the offspring of the parent flies you selected above, and they represent the first filial (F1) generation. In your “Data Table” on the bottom of the page and/or on Table I found at the end of this Worksheet, please input the numbers of each sex and phenotype combination for the F1 generation. These numbers will be placed into the first row marked “P generation Cross”.

You will next need to select one of the F1 female flies and one of the F1 male flies to create the second filial (F2) generation. Drag your selections down to the empty vial on the next shelf below and fill in the Punnett square below to predict the offspring:

 

  XR XR
XR Genotype: XRXR

Phenotype:Red eye, female

 Genotype:XRXR

Phenotype: Red eye, female
Y Genotype:XRY

Phenotype: Red eye, male

 Genotype:XRY

Phenotype: Red eye, male

__50_% Female, red eye _0__% Female, white eye _50__% Male, red eye _0__% Male, white eye

After clicking “Mate and Sort”, you will now have information on their offspring (the F2 generation) to input into your “Data Table” or Worksheet below. This information will be placed into the second row marked “F1 generation Cross”.

NOTE: there are additional lines remaining to use if your instructor requires the analysis of additional crosses.

Please finish this exercise by opening the “Journal” link at the bottom of the page and answering the questions.

Table I:

Cross Type Phenotype of Male Parent Phenotype of Female Parent Number of Red eye, Male Offspring Number of White eye, Male Offspring Number of Red eye, Female Offspring Number of White eye, Female Offspring
P Generation Cross Red Red 50 0 50 0
F1 Generation Cross Red Red 50 0 50 0
P Generation Cross White Red 47 0 53 0
F1 Generation Cross Red Red 22 25 53 0
P Generation Cross Red White 0 49 51 0
F1 Generation Cross White Red 27 28 20 25
P Generation Cross White White 0 51 0 49
F1 Generation Cross White White 0 51 0 49

 

Post-laboratory Questions:

Through fruit fly studies, geneticists have discovered a segment of DNA called the homeobox which appears to control:

Sex development in the flies

Life span in the flies

Final body plan development in the flies

The genotype of a red-eyed male fruit fly would be:

XRXR

XRXr

XrXr

A or B

None of the above

Sex-linked traits:

Can be carried on the Y chromosome

Affect males and females equally

Can be carried on chromosome 20

A and B

None of the above -2

A monohybrid cross analyzes:

One trait, such as eye color

Two traits, such as eye color and wing shape

The offspring of one parent

A female with the genotype “XRXr”:

Is homozygous for the eye color gene

Is heterozygous for the eye color gene

Is considered a carrier for the eye color gene

A and B

B and C

In T.H. Morgan’s experiments:

He concluded that the gene for fruit fly eye color is carried on the X chromosome

He found that his F1 generation results always mirrored those predicted by Mendelian Laws of Inheritance

He found that his F2 generation results always mirrored those predicted by Mendelian Laws of Inheritance

A and B

All of the above

In this laboratory exercise:

The Punnett square will allow you to predict the traits of the offspring created in your crosses

XR will represent the recessive allele for eye color, which is white

Xr will represent the dominant allele for eye color, which is red

All of the above

In a cross between a homozygous red-eyed female fruit fly and a white-eyed male, what percentage of the female offspring is expected to be carriers?

0%

25%

50%

75%

100%

In a cross between a white-eyed female and a red-eyed male:

All males will have red eyes

50% of males will have white eyes

All females will have red eyes

50% of females will have white eyes

In human diseases that are X-linked dominant, one dominant allele causes the disease. If an affected father has a child with an unaffected mother:

All males are unaffected

Some but not all males are affected

All females are unaffected

Some but not all females are affected

Journal Questions:

1. In a mating between a red-eyed male fruit fly and a red-eyed heterozygous female, what percentage of the female offspring is expected to be carriers? How did you determine the percentage?

2. In a mating between a red-eyed male fruit fly and a white-eyed female fruit fly, what percentage of the male offspring will have white eyes? Describe how you determined the percentage.

3. Hemophilia, a blood disorder in humans, results from a sex-linked recessive allele. Suppose that a daughter of a mother without the allele and a father with the allele marries a man with hemophilia. What is the probability that the daughter’s children will develop the disease? Describe how you determined the probability.

4. Colorblindness results from a sex-linked recessive allele. Determine the genotypes of the offspring that result from a cross between a color-blind male and a homozygous female who has normal vision. Describe how you determined the genotypes of the offspring.

5. Explain why sex-linked traits appear more often in males than in females.

6. In humans, hemophilia is a sex-linked recessive trait. It is located on the X chromosome. Remember that the human female genotype is XX and the male genotype is XY. Suppose that a daughter of a mother without the allele and a father with the allele marries a man with hemophilia. What is the probability that the daughter’s children will develop the disease? Describe how you determined the probability.

7. Colorblindness also results from a sex-linked recessive allele on the X chromosome in humans. Determine the genotypes of the offspring that result from a cross between a color-blind male and a homozygous female who has normal vision. Describe how you determined the genotypes of the offspring.

8. Based on the traits explained in questions 6 and 7, explain why sex-linked traits in humans appear more often in males than in females.

 
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Population Ecology

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Population Ecology Hands-On Labs, Inc. Version 42-0281-00-02 Review the safety materials and wear goggles when working with chemicals. Read the entire exercise before you begin. Take time to organize the materials you will need and set aside a safe work space in which to complete the exercise. Experiment Summary: You will explore the field of population ecology and survey factors involved in the decline, expansion, and maintenance of a population. Simulated growth of a population will be modeled, graphed, and analyzed. You will use quantitative data from a cemetery population to study demographics. www.HOLscience.com 1 © Hands-On Labs, Inc. EXPERIMENT Learning Objectives Upon completion of this laboratory, you will be able to: ● Define species, population, and metapopulation. ● Differentiate between density-dependent and density-independent factors and describe how each can influence population size. ● Outline factors that influence carrying capacity and describe the potential consequences of overpopulation. ● Illustrate graphs of linear and exponential population growth. ● Describe how demography data may be used to calculate probability of mortality. ● Model population growth and determine if the growth was linear, exponential, or had no observable pattern. ● Determine constraints placed on a modeled population and draw conclusions about carrying capacity. ● Use birth and mortality data of a cemetery to investigate demography. ● Determine probability of death within a cohort. Time Allocation: 3.5 hours Note: This experiment suggests a field trip to a local cemetery for data collection. Please plan your time accordingly. www.HOLscience.com 2 ©Hands-On Labs, Inc. Experiment Population Ecology Materials Student Supplied Materials Quantity Item Description 3 Sheets of paper (optional) 1 Pen or pencil 1 Access to a cemetery (optional) 1 Access to a printer (optional) HOL Supplied Materials Quantity Item Description 1 Packs of dice, mini (100 pcs) 1 Cup, plastic, 9 oz., short 1 HOL Supplied Cemetery Data Supplemental Document Note: To fully and accurately complete all lab exercises, you will need access to: 1. A computer to upload digital camera images. 2. Basic photo editing software such as Microsoft Word® or PowerPoint®, to add labels, leader lines, or text to digital photos. 3. Subject-specific textbook or appropriate reference resources from lecture content or other suggested resources. Note: The packaging and/or materials in this LabPaq kit may differ slightly from that which is listed above. For an exact listing of materials, refer to the Contents List included in your LabPaq kit. www.HOLscience.com 3 ©Hands-On Labs, Inc. Experiment Population Ecology Background Species and Populations A species is a group of organisms that share many common characteristics and breed among themselves to produce fertile offspring. Individuals of a species that occupy a defined area at the same time are called a population. The habitat area of a population is often naturally enclosed within geographical boundaries, such as rivers or mountains. See Figure 1. In research studies about populations, scientists often define artificial boundaries. For example, scientists may investigate the population within a county or state boundary. Figure 1. Small population of water lilies (family Nymphaeaceae) inhabiting a pond. © yuriy kulik When suitable habitat is patchy or fragmented, populations can be spatially isolated, but members of the population can have some level of interaction with one another. When this occurs, the interacting populations are referred to as a metapopulation. An example of a species that is often found as a metapopulation is the desert bighorn sheep (Ovis canadensis). See Figure 2. The bighorn sheep occupies steep slopes of mountains that are separated by flat lowlands. Although the lowlands are an unsuitable long-term habitat for the sheep, individuals and groups of sheep are able to travel through the lowlands to adjacent mountains, resulting in interaction among individuals of different but connected populations. www.HOLscience.com 4 ©Hands-On Labs, Inc. Experiment Population Ecology Figure 2. Bighorn sheep. © Shane W. Thompson Population Density Biologists who study population ecology often investigate population size and factors involved in the decline, expansion, and maintenance of a population. Data about populations include the following: ● Mortality (death) and birth rates ● Movement of members into and out of the population (immigration and emigration) ● Number of individuals in a group, or cohort (for this experiment cohorts are the age classes of deceased individuals) ● Spatial distribution of species ● Population density (the number of individuals per unit area) Factors related to the density of a population, called density-dependent factors, affect population growth by reducing or increasing the population size. For example, the ability to acquire a mate is a density-dependent factor. When population density is great, competition for mates increases. Members of the population may spend more energy competing for mates than actually mating, and the population size can subsequently decrease due to reduced births. On the other hand, when population density is optimal, competition may be relatively low and mating opportunities may be high, resulting in growth of the population. Other density-dependent factors include resource availability, predation rates, and disease transmission. Density-independent factors influence population growth but are not dependent on population density. Consider how the population density of trees may be affected by weather patterns and wildfires. Growth rates can follow various patterns, as shown in Figure 3. When resources are unlimited, a population’s growth rate can be exponential. Although the graph of exponential growth illustrates a potentially great increase in population size, no population can grow indefinitely. In nature, members of the population will eventually consume available resources, and the population size will ultimately plateau or decline due to density-dependent factors. www.HOLscience.com 5 ©Hands-On Labs, Inc. Experiment Population Ecology Figure 3. Population growth patterns. A. Linear. B. Exponential. Every natural area has a carrying capacity, a decided number of individuals that can be supported given the area’s limited resources. Carrying capacity is influenced not only by the number of members of a single population, but also members of competing populations. Furthermore, a given population may act as a resource for another population; for example, voles are a food resource for owls. Carrying capacities are in constant flux, as they are affected by both densitydependent and density-independent factors. In the event that overpopulation occurs and the carrying capacity is exceeded, a population collapse can occur; whereby the population size decreases dramatically. When a population completely collapses and no members remain, the population is locally extinct, or extirpated. Human Populations A subset of population ecology, demography, is the study of human populations. Cemeteries are an excellent place to study demography as they provide data on both the birth and death dates of individuals of a local population. This information can be used in turn to determine the probability of death and survival at different ages in a population. Table 1 is an example analysis of mortality. To generate the table, the number of individuals that died in each cohort (based on age class) must be determined. For example, the first cohort listed in Table 1 includes individuals that died from age one to nine. From this information, probability of mortality can be calculated. According to Table 1 there is a 15% probability of death in this specific population, between ages one and nine. Closely study the table descriptions provided below. www.HOLscience.com 6 ©Hands-On Labs, Inc. Experiment Population Ecology Table 1. Cemetery Demography Data. Cohort (X) Number of deaths (D) Frequency of population in cohort (d) Frequency of survivorship entering the cohort (l) Probability of death within a cohort (Q) 1-9 24 0.15 1.00 0.15 10-19 20 0.13 0.85 0.15 20-29 5 0.03 0.73 0.04 30-39 10 0.06 0.69 0.09 40-49 16 0.10 0.63 0.16 50-59 40 0.25 0.53 0.47 60-69 35 0.22 0.28 0.78 70+ 10 0.06 0.06 1.00 Table Description: ● Cohort (X) – The age intervals of deceased individuals ● Number of deaths (D) – The number of individuals that died in each cohort ● Frequency of population in cohort (d) – The portion of the population that died in each cohort, d = D / Total Population Size ● Frequency of survivorship entering the cohort (l) – The portion of the population that enters the cohort, l cohort2 = lcohort1 – dcohort1 ● Probability of death within a cohort (Q) – The probability that any given individual will die within a cohort, Q = d / l www.HOLscience.com 7 ©Hands-On Labs, Inc. Experiment Population Ecology Exercise 1: Modeling Population Growth In this exercise, you will use dice to model population growth. Each die will represent an individual; new individuals will be born, and individuals will also die. You will track the entire population until the population density (number of individuals) reaches 100. 1. Before you begin to model population growth, examine the rules listed below and shown in Figure 4. Rules ● Each die represents 1 individual of the population. ● You will start with 4 individuals. ● You will roll the dice to investigate births and deaths of the population. ● The number of dots on each die will represent a birth, a death, or neither birth nor death. ● Birth = 1, 4 ● Death = 6 ● Neither = 2, 3, 5 Figure 4. Rules of population growth activity. 2. Select 4 dice and place them in the cup. These dice represent the 4 individuals comprising generation 1, the initial population. Note: The color of the dice does not matter. 3. In Data Table 1 of your Lab Report Assistant, record the “Initial population size (N)” (for the first generation, the initial population size is 4). www.HOLscience.com 8 ©Hands-On Labs, Inc. Experiment Population Ecology 4. Cover the cup with your hand and shake the dice. Gently pour the dice onto a table or work surface. Important Note: Pouring the dice out too quickly or too high from the work surface may result in lost dice. Take care not to inadvertently lose individuals. 5. Determine the number of individuals that were born (any dice displaying numbers 1 and 4). Determine the number of individuals that died (any dice displaying number 6). See Figure 5. Figure 5. Example first generation: 2 individuals gave birth, and 1 individual died. 6. Record the “Number of births (B)” and the “Number of deaths (D)” in Data Table 1. 7. Remove any dead individuals. For example, in Figure 5 above, the dead individual should be removed from the population and returned to the bag. 8. Add a die for each birth. For example, in Figure 5 above, 2 dice should be added to the population. 9. Calculate the final population size and record the value in Data Table 1. Use the following equation: Final population size = N + B – D 10. Count the number of dice in your population to ensure that it equals the value recorded for “final population size” and return the dice to the cup. 11. To obtain data for generation 2, repeat steps 3-10. Note: Because you will be starting with a very small population, extinction is a possibility, but the odds are against it. If your population does go extinct, start again. 12. Continue rolling the dice and recording data until your population size reaches a minimum of 100. www.HOLscience.com 9 ©Hands-On Labs, Inc. Experiment Population Ecology 13. Once you have reached a population size of 100, calculate the change in population size for each generation. Record each value in Data Table 1. Use the following equation: Change in population size = Final population size – Initial population size 14. Graph the initial population size for each generation. To do this, create a scatter plot with the generations on the independent axis (x-axis) and the initial population size on the dependent axis (y-axis). Consider whether the population growth you modeled showed a linear pattern, exponential pattern, or no pattern. 15. Resize the graph and insert it into Data Table 2 of your Lab Report Assistant. Refer to the appendix entitled, “Resizing an Image” for guidance with resizing an image. 16. Graph the change in population size for each generation. To do this, create a bar graph with the generations on the independent axis (x-axis) and the change in population size on the dependent axis (y-axis). Consider whether changes in population size were greatest when the population was smaller or larger. 17. Resize the graph and insert it into Data Table 3 of your Lab Report Assistant. Questions A. How many generations did it take to reach a population size of 100? B. Consider the mode of reproduction modeled in your population. Would sexual reproduction or asexual reproduction likely be the cause of a birth? Are individuals of the species likely or unlikely to have separate male and female sexes? C. Did the modeled population exhibit linear growth, exponential growth, or no pattern? Use Data Table 2 to support your answer. D. Were changes in population size greatest when the population was smaller or larger? Which generation exhibited the greatest change in size? Use Data Table 3 to support your answer. E. What resource constraints were placed on the modeled population? F. Could the modeled population exhibit indefinite growth? If so, how? Is indefinite growth observed in nature? Explain why or why not. www.HOLscience.com 10 ©Hands-On Labs, Inc. Experiment Population Ecology Exercise 2: Investigating a Human Population In this exercise, you will investigate demography of a human population. You will collect birth and death information from a cemetery and analyze trends in the population. 1. Research your local area to find a cemetery that you may visit for this exercise. Note: If you are unable to access a cemetery, you may use the data provided in the “HOL Supplied Cemetery Data” Supplemental Document. If you choose to do this, skip to step 8. 2. Print a copy of Data Table 4 from your Lab Report Assistant, to bring with you to the cemetery. Travel to a cemetery during the day, ensure that conditions are safe and public access is permitted. 3. In Data Table 4, record the name, birth date and date of death for 80 deceased individuals. As you collect data, be sure to spread out within the full sampling area. Individuals of the same family or who died in shared years will often be grouped together, and the goal is to take a representative sample of all individuals in the population. 4. Record the cemetery name and location in Data Table 4. 5. Determine how old each person was when they died, and record your data in Data Table 4. Use the following equation: Age at death = Birth year – Death year 6. Investigate the first names of each individual and record the sex (M for male; F for female) in Data Table 4. If the name is gender-neutral, such as Jean, Lynn, or Pat, you may leave the area blank. Ensure that any data you recorded by hand is present in the Lab Report Assistant document that you report to your instructor. Note: This concludes the outdoor portion of this exercise; the rest of Exercise 2 may be performed from home. 7. Record a summary of the population. Address each of the following questions, and record data in Data Table 5 of your Lab Report Assistant. ● What were the first and last birth years? ● What were the first and last death years? ● How many individuals died before 1950? How many died after 1950? ● How many individuals are male and female? www.HOLscience.com 11 ©Hands-On Labs, Inc. Experiment Population Ecology 8. In the next steps, you will calculate the probability of dying within a given cohort. As shown in Data Table 6 of your Lab Report Assistant, cohorts are age classes. For example, cohort 1 includes individuals that died between the ages of 1 and 9; cohort 2 includes individuals who died between the ages of 10 and 19. Examine Data Table 6 and study the following descriptions for each column heading: ● Cohort (X) – The age intervals of deceased individuals. ● Number of Deaths (D) – The number of individuals that died in each cohort. ● Frequency of Population in Cohort (d) – The portion of the population that died in each cohort. ● Frequency of Survivorship Entering the Cohort (l) – The portion of the population that enters the cohort. ● Probability of Death within a Cohort (Q ) – The probability that any given individual will die within a cohort. 9. Count the number of people who died in each cohort (age interval). Record your data under “Number of deaths (D)” in Data Table 6. 10. Calculate the “Frequency of population in cohort (d).” Record each value as a number with two decimal places. Use the following equation: d = D / Total Population Size Note: “Frequency of survivorship of cohort (l)” is based on entry into the cohort. Thus, the first cohort listed will always have a value of 1.00 because 100% of the population was born, entering into the cohort. A value of 1.00 has been entered for cohort # 1 in Data Table 6. With each subsequent cohort, values of “l” will decrease. 11. Calculate the “Frequency of survivorship of cohort (l)” for cohort # 2. Record each value as a number with 2 decimal places. Use the following equation: I cohort2 = Icohort1 – dcohort1 12. Calculate the “Frequency of survivorship of cohort (l)” for each of the remaining cohorts. For example, “Frequency of survivorship of cohort (l)” for cohort 3 will be calculated as: I cohort3 = Icohort2 – dcohort2 Note: The final recorded “l” in Data Table 6 should be equivalent or very close to the final recorded “d.” 13. Calculate the “Probability of death (Q).” Record each value as a number with 2 decimal places. Use the following equation: Q = d / l www.HOLscience.com 12 ©Hands-On Labs, Inc. Experiment Population Ecology Note: The probability of death is a frequency and may be interpreted as a percentage. For example, if Q=0.30 for cohort # 1, then there is a 30% probability that a given individual will die between the ages of 1 to 9. Note: To find Q, use data within a single cohort: Qcohort1 = dcohort1 / lcohort1 14. Create a bar graph of the probability of death within each cohort. Plot the cohort age interval (1-9, 10-19, etc.) on the independent axis (x-axis), and plot the probability of death on the dependent axis (y-axis). 15. Resize the graph and insert it into Data Table 7 of your Lab Report Assistant. 16. When you are finished uploading photos and data into your Lab Report Assistant, save your file correctly and zip the file so you can send it to your instructor as a smaller file. Refer to the appendix entitled “Saving Correctly” and the appendix entitled “Zipping Files” for guidance with saving the Lab Report Assistant correctly and zipping the file. Questions A. Which cohort had the greatest probability of death? Which had the least probability? Use the graph in Data Table 7 to support your answer. B. Overall, does human mortality tend to be greatest at young ages or older ages? C. How many individuals were male, and how many were female? How many individuals were you unable to assign a gender to? D. Using the raw data in Data Table 4, calculate the average age at death for males and for females. What inferences can you make about male versus female age at death? E. If the government made significant cuts in social services, such as prenatal and infant care, how might your data be affected? www.HOLscience.com 13 ©Hands-On Labs, Inc. Experiment Population Ecology Population Ecology Hands-On Labs, Inc. Version 42-0281-00-02 Lab Report Assistant This document is not meant to be a substitute for a formal laboratory report. The Lab Report Assistant is simply a summary of the experiment’s questions, diagrams if needed, and data tables that should be addressed in a formal lab report. The intent is to facilitate students’ writing of lab reports by providing this information in an editable file which can be sent to an instructor. Exercise 1: Modeling Population Growth See next page www.HOLscience.com 14 ©Hands-On Labs, Inc. Experiment Population Ecology Data Table 1. Population Growth Model. Generation Initial Population Size (N) Number of Births (B) Number of Deaths (D) Final Population Size (N + B – D) Change in Population Size (Final – Initial) 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 www.HOLscience.com 15 ©Hands-On Labs, Inc. Experiment Population Ecology Data Table 2. Population Size and Generations: Scatter Plot. Population Size Data Table 3. Population Size and Generations: Bar Graph. Population Size www.HOLscience.com 16 ©Hands-On Labs, Inc. Experiment Population Ecology Questions A. How many generations did it take to reach a population size of 100? B. Consider the mode of reproduction modeled in your population. Would sexual reproduction or asexual reproduction likely be the cause of a birth? Are individuals of the species likely or unlikely to have separate male and female sexes? C. Did the modeled population exhibit linear growth, exponential growth, or no pattern? Use Data Table 2 to support your answer. D. Were changes in population size greatest when the population was smaller or larger? Which generation exhibited the greatest change in size? Use Data Table 3 to support your answer. E. What resource constraints were placed on the modeled population? F. Could the modeled population exhibit indefinite growth? If so, how? Is indefinite growth observed in nature? Explain why or why not. www.HOLscience.com 17 ©Hands-On Labs, Inc. Experiment Population Ecology Exercise 2: Investigating a Human Population Data Table 4. Raw Data for Deceased Individuals. Cemetery Name and Location: Individual First Name Last Name Birth Year Death Year Age at Death Sex (M/F) 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 www.HOLscience.com 18 ©Hands-On Labs, Inc. Experiment Population Ecology 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 www.HOLscience.com 19 ©Hands-On Labs, Inc. Experiment Population Ecology 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 Data Table 5. Summary of Deceased Individuals. Observations Data First birth year Last birth year First death year Last death year Number of individuals who died before 1950 Number of individuals who died after 1950 Number of males Number of females www.HOLscience.com 20 ©Hands-On Labs, Inc. Experiment Population Ecology Data Table 6. Demography Data. # Cohort (X) Number of Deaths (D) Frequency of Population in Cohort (d) Frequency of Survivorship Entering the Cohort (l) Probability of Death within a Cohort (Q) 1 1-9 1.00 2 10-19 3 20-29 4 30-39 5 40-49 6 50-59 7 60-69 8 70+ Total 80 1.00 Data Table 7. Probability of Death within Each Cohort. Probability of Death www.HOLscience.com 21 ©Hands-On Labs, Inc. Experiment Population Ecology Questions A. Which cohort had the greatest probability of death? Which had the least probability? Use the graph in Data Table 7 to support your answer. B. Overall, does human mortality tend to be greatest at young ages or older ages? C. How many individuals were male, and how many were female? How many individuals were you unable to assign a gender to? D. Using the raw data in Data Table 4, calculate the average age at death for males and for females. What inferences can you make about male versus female age at death? E. If the government made significant cuts in social services, such as prenatal and infant care, how might your data be affected? www.HOLscience.com 22 ©Hands-On Labs, Inc. Experiment Population Ecology

 
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Biology Labs

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Pre-Lab Questions

1. What are chromosomes made of?

2. Research the differences that exist between mitosis and binary fission. Identify at least one difference, and explain why it is significant.

3. Cancer is a disease related to uncontrolled cell division. Investigate two known causes for these rapidly dividing cells and use this knowledge to invent a drug that would inhibit the growth of cancer cells.

Experiment 1: Observation of Mitosis in a Plant Cell

In this experiment, we will look at the different stage of mitosis in an onion cell. Remember that mitosis only occupies one to two hours while interphase can take anywhere from 18 – 24 hours. Using this information and the data from your experiment, you can estimate the percentage of cells in each stage of the cell cycle.

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Materials

Onion (allium) Root Tip Digital Slide Images
 

Procedure:

Part 1: Calculating Time Spent in Each Cell Cycle Phase

1. The length of the cell cycle in the onion root tip is about 24 hours. Predict how many hours of the 24 hour cell cycle you think each step takes. Record your predictions, along with supporting evidence, in Table 1.

2. Examine the onion root tip slide images on the following pages. There are four images, each displaying a different field of view. Pick one of the images, and count the number of cells in each stage. Then count the total number of cells in the image. Record the image you selected and your counts in Table 2.

3. Calculate the time spent by a cell in each stage based on the 24 hour cycle:

Hours of Stage = 24 x Number of Cells in Stage 
  Total Number of Cells Counted

Part 2: Identifying Stages of the Cell Cycle

1. Observe the images of the root cap tip.

2. Locate a good example of a cell in each of the following stages: interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase.

3. Draw the dividing cell in the appropriate area for each stage of the cell cycle, exactly as it appears. Include your drawings in Table 3.

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Onion Root Tip: 100X
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Onion Root Tip: 100X
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Onion Root Tip: 100X
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Onion Root Tip: 100X
Table 1: Mitosis Predictions
Predictions:  
Supporting Evidence:  
Table 2: Mitosis Data
Number of Cells in Each Stage Total Number of Cells Calculated % of Time Spent in Each Stage
Interphase:   Interphase:
Prophase:   Prophase:
Metaphase:   Metaphase:
Anaphase:   Anaphase:
Telophase:   Telophase:
Cytokinesis:   Cytokinesis:
Table 3: Stage Drawings
Cell Stage: Drawing:
Interphase:  
Prophase:  
Metaphase:  
Anaphase:  
Telophase:  
Cytokinesis:  

Post-Lab Questions

1. Label the arrows in the slide image below with the appropriate stage of the cell cycle.

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2. In what stage were most of the onion root tip cells? Based on what you know about cell cycle division, what does this imply about the life span of a cell?

3. Were there any stages of the cell cycle that you did not observe? How can you explain this using evidence from the cell cycle?

4. As a cell grows, what happens to its surface area to volume ratio? (Hint: Think of a balloon being blown up). How does this ratio change with respect to cell division?

5. What is the function of mitosis in a cell that is about to divide?

6. What would happen if mitosis were uncontrolled?

7. How accurate were your time predication for each stage of the cell cycle?

8. Discuss one observation that you found interesting while looking at the onion root tip cells.

Experiment 2: Tracking Chromosomal DNA Movement through Mitosis

image10.jpgAlthough mitosis and meiosis share similarities, they are different processes and create very different results. In this experiment, you will follow the movement of the chromosomes through mitosis to create somatic daughter cells.

Materials

2 Sets of Different Colored Pop-it® Beads (32 of each – these may be any color) (8) 5-Holed Pop-it® Beads (used as centromeres)
 

Procedure

Genetic content is replicated during interphase. DNA exists as loose molecular strands called chromatin; it has not condensed to form chromosomes yet.

Sister chromatids begin coiling into chromosomes during prophase. Begin your experiment here:

1. Build a pair of replicated, homologous chromosomes. 10 beads should be used to create each individual sister chromatid (20 beads per chromosome pair). Two five-holed beads represent each centromere. To do this…

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Figure 5: Bead set-up. The blue beads represent one pair of sister chromatids and the black beads represent a second pair of sister chromatids. The black and blue pair are homologous.

a. Start with 20 beads of one color to create your first sister chromatid pair. Five beads must be snapped together for each of the four different strands. Two strands create the first chromatid, and two strands create the second chromatid.

b. Place one five-holed bead flat on a work surface with the node positioned up. Then, snap two of the four strands into the bead to create an “I” shaped sister chromatid. Repeat this step with the other two strands and another five-holed bead.

c. Once both sister chromatids are constructed, connect them by their five-holed beads creating an “X” shape.

d. Repeat this process using 20 new beads (of a different color) to create the second sister chromatid pair. See Figure 5 for reference.

2. Assemble a second pair of replicated sister chromatids; this time using 12 beads, instead of 20, per pair (six beads per each complete sister chromatid strand).

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Figure 6: Second set of replicated chromosomes.

3. Repeat this process using 12 new beads (of a different color) to create the second set of sister chromatids. See Figure 6 for reference.

4. Configure the chromosomes as they would appear in each of the stages of the cell cycle (prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, and cytokinesis). Diagram the images for each stage in the section titled “Cell Cycle Division: Mitosis Beads Diagram”. Be sure to indicate the number of chromosomes present in each cell for each phase.

Cell Cycle Division: Mitosis Beads Diagram:

Prophase

 

Metaphase

 

Anaphase

 

Telophase

 

Cytokinesis

Post-Lab Questions

1. How many chromosomes did each of your daughter cells contain?

2. Why is it important for each daughter cell to contain information identical to the parent cell?

3. How often do human skin cells divide? Why might that be? Compare this rate to how frequently human neurons divide. What do you notice?

4. Hypothesize what would happen if the sister chromatids did not split equally during anaphase of mitosis.

Experiment 3: The Importance of Cell Cycle Control

Some environmental factors can cause genetic mutations which result in a lack of proper cell cycle control (mitosis). When this happens, the possibility for uncontrolled cell growth occurs. In some instances, uncontrolled growth can lead to tumors, which are often associated with cancer, or other biological diseases.

image11.jpgIn this experiment, you will review some of the karyotypic differences which can be observed when comparing normal, controlled cell growth and abnormal, uncontrolled cell growth. A karyotype is an image of the complete set of diploid chromosomes in a single cell.

Materials

*Computer Access *Internet Access

  

*You Must Provide

  
   

Procedure

1. Begin by constructing a hypothesis to explain what differences you might observe when comparing the karyotypes of human cells which experience normal cell cycle control versus cancerous cells (which experience abnormal, or a lack of, cell cycle control). Record your hypothesis in Post-Lab Question 1. Note: Be sure to include what you expect to observe, and why you think you will observe these features. Think about what you know about cancerous cell growth to help construct this information

2. Go online to find some images of abnormal karyotypes, and normal karyotypes. The best results will come from search terms such as “abnormal karyotype”, “HeLa cells”, “normal karyotype”, “abnormal chromosomes”, etc. Be sure to use dependable resources which have been peer-reviewed

3. Identify at least five abnormalities in the abnormal images. Then, list and draw each image in the Data section at the end of this experiment. Do these abnormalities agree with your original hypothesis? Hint: It may be helpful to count the number of chromosomes, count the number of pairs, compare the sizes of homologous chromosomes, look for any missing or additional genetic markers/flags, etc.

Data

1.

 

2.

 

3.

 

4.

 

5.

Post-Lab Questions

1. Record your hypothesis from Step 1 in the Procedure section here.

2. What do your results indicate about cell cycle control?

3. Suppose a person developed a mutation in a somatic cell which diminishes the performance of the body’s natural cell cycle control proteins. This mutation resulted in cancer, but was effectively treated with a cocktail of cancer-fighting techniques. Is it possible for this person’s future children to inherit this cancer-causing mutation? Be specific when you explain why or why not.

Pre-Lab Questions

1. Arrange the following molecules from least to most specific with respect to the original nucleotide sequence: RNA, DNA, Amino Acid, Protein

2. Identify two structural differences between DNA and RNA.

3. Suppose you are performing an experiment in which you must use heat to denature a double helix and create two single stranded pieces. Based on what you know about nucleotide bonding, do you think the nucleotides will all denature at the same time? Use scientific reasoning to explain why.

Experiment 1: Coding

In this experiment, you will model the effects of mutations on the genetic code. Some mutations cause no structural or functional change to proteins while others can have devastating affects on an organism.

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Materials

Red Beads

Blue Beads

  

Yellow Beads

Green Beads
   

Procedure:

1. Using the red, blue, yellow and green beads, devise and lay out a three color code for each of the following letters (codon). For example Z = green : red : green.

In the spaces below the letter, record your “code”.

C: E: H: I: K: L:
bbb ggg rrr yyy bgr Grb
M: O: S: T: U:
yrg yby byb Rgr Gyg
Create codons for: Start: Stop: Space:
  bbr ggr yyr

2. Using this code, align the beads corresponding to the appropriate letter to write the following sentence (don’t forget start, space and stop): The mouse likes most cheese

a. How many beads did you use? 87

There are multiple ways your cells can read a sequence of DNA and build slightly different proteins from the same strand. We will not go through the process here, but as an illustration of this “alternate splicing”, remove codons (beads) 52 – 66 from your sentence above.

b. What does the sentence say now? (re-write the entire sentence) The mouse likes cheese

Mutations are simply changes in the sequence of nucleotides. There are three ways this occurs:

1. Change a nucleotide(s)

2. Remove a nucleotide(s)

3. Add a nucleotide(s)

3. Using the sentence from exercise 1B:

a. Change the 24th bead to a different color. What does the sentence say now (re-read the entire sentence)? Does the sentence still make sense?

The moose likes cheese

b. Replace the 24th bead and remove the 20th bead (remember what was there). What does the sentence say (re-read the entire sentence)? Does the sentence still make sense? If it doesn’t make sense as a sentence, are there any words that do? If so, what words still make sense?

The muse likes cheese

c. Replace the 20th bead and add one between bead numbers 50 and 51. What does the sentence say now? Does the sentence still make sense?

d. In 3.a (above) you mutated one letter. What role do you think the redundancy of the genetic code plays in this type of change?

e. Based on your observations, why do you suppose the mutations we made in 3.b and 3.c are called frame shift mutations?

f. Which mutations do you suspect have the greatest consequence? Why?

Experiment 2: Transcription and Translation

DNA codes for all of the proteins manufactured by any organism (including you!). It is valuable, highly informative and securely protected in the nucleus of every cell. Consider the following analogy:

An architect spends months or years designing a building. Her original drawings are valuable and informative. She will not provide the original copy to everyone involved in constructing the building. Instead, she gives the electrician a copy with the information she needs to build the electrical system. She will do the same for the plumbers, the framers, the roofers and everyone else who needs to play a role to build the structure. These are subsets of the information contained in the original copy. Your cell does the same thing. The “original drawings” are contained in your DNA which is securely stored in the nucleus.

Nuclear DNA is “opened up” by an enzyme called helicase, and a subset of information is transcribed into RNA. RNA is a single strand version of DNA, where the nucleotide uracil, replaces thymine. The copies are sent from the nucleus to the cytoplasm in the form of messenger RNA (mRNA ). Once in the cytoplasm, transfer RNA (tRNA) links to the codons and aligns the proper amino acids, based on the mRNA sequence. Protein builders called ribosomes float around in the cytoplasm, latch onto the strand of mRNA and sequentially link the amino acids together that the tRNA has lined up for them. This construction of proteins from the mRNA is known as translation.

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Materials

Blue beads Green beads Red beads Yellow beads Pop-it® beads (8 different colors) *Pen or pencil

  

*You Must Provide In this experiment:

· Regular beads are used as nucleotides.

· Pop-it® beads are used as amino acids.

  

Procedure

1. Use a pen or pencil to write a five word sentence using no more than eight different letters in the space below.

2. Now, use the red, blue, green, and yellow beads to form “codons” (three beads) for each letter in your sentence. Then, create codons to represent the “start, “space” and stop” regions within your sentence. Write the sentence using the beads in the space below:

3. How many beads did you use?

4. Assign one Pop-It® bead to represent each codon. You do not need to assign a Pop-It® bead for the start, stop and space regions. These will be your amino acids.

5. Connect the Pop-It® beads to build the chain of amino acids that code for your sentence (leave out the start, stop, and space regions).

6. How many different amino acids did you use?

7. How many total amino acids did you use?

Experiment 3: DNA Extraction

image14.jpgMuch can be learned from studying an organism’s DNA. The first step to doing this is extracting DNA from cells. In this experiment, you will isolate DNA from the cells of fruit.

Materials

(1) 10 mL Graduated Cylinder (2) 100 mL Beakers 15 cm Cheesecloth 1 Resealable Bag 1 Rubber Band (Large. Contains latex; please wear gloves when handling if you have a latex allergy). Standing Test Tube Wooden Stir Stick *Fresh, Soft Fruit (e.g., Grapes, Strawberries, Banana, etc.)

  

*Scissors **DNA Extraction Solution ***Ice Cold Ethanol *You Must Provide **Contains sodium chloride, detergent and water ***For ice cold ethanol, store in the freezer 60 minutes before use.

 

REMINDER: You are REQUIRED to video yourself performing steps 3 through 9 of the procedure below. You MUST submit the video with the lab to receive credit for this experiment.

Procedure:

1. If you have not done so, prepare the ethanol by placing it in a freezer for approximately 60 minutes.

2. Put pieces of a soft fruit into a plastic zipper bag and mash with your fist. The amount of food should be equal to the size of approximately five grapes.

3. Use the 10 mL graduated cylinder to measure 10 mL of the DNA Extraction Solution. Transfer the solution from the cylinder to the bag with the fruit it in. Seal the bag completely.

4. Mix well by kneading the bag for two minutes.

5. Create a filter by placing the center of the cheesecloth over the mouth of the standing test tube, pushing it into the tube about two inches, and securing the cheesecloth with a rubber band around the top of the test tube.

6. Cut a hole in the corner of the bag and filter your extraction by pouring it into the cheesecloth. You will need to keep the filtered solution which passes through the cheese cloth into the standing test tube.

7. Rinse the 10 mL graduated cylinder, and measure five mL of ice-cold ethanol. Then, while holding the standing test tube at a 45° angle, slowly transfer the ethanol into the standing test tube with the filtered solution.

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Figure 6: DNA extraction. The color has been enhanced by dying the fruit with a substance that glows under black light.

8. DNA will precipitate (come out of solution) after the ethanol has been added to the solution. Let the test tube sit undisturbed for 2 – 5 minutes. You should begin to see air bubbles form at the boundary line between the ethanol and the filtered fruit solution. Bubbles will form near the top, and you will eventually see the DNA float to the top of the ethanol.

9. Gently insert the stir stick into the test tube. Slowly raise and lower the tip several times to spool and collect the DNA. If there is an insufficient amount of DNA available, it may not float to the top of the solution in a form that can be easily spooled or removed from the tube. However, the DNA will still be visible as white/clear clusters by gently stirring the solution and pushing the clusters around the top.

Post-Lab Questions

1. What is the texture and consistency of the DNA?

2. Why did we use a salt in the extraction solution?

3. Is the DNA soluble in the aqueous solution or alcohol?

4. What else might be in the ethanol/aqueous interface? How could you eliminate this?

5. Which DNA bases pair with each other? How many hydrogen bonds are shared by each pair?

6. How is information to make proteins passed on through generations?

Pre-Lab Questions

1. In a species of mice, brown fur color is dominant to white fur color. When a brown mouse is crossed with a white mouse all of their offspring have brown fur. Why did none of the offspring have white fur?

2. Can a person’s genotype be determine by their phenotype? Why or why not?

3. Are incomplete dominant and co-dominant patterns of inheritance found in human traits? If yes, give examples of each.

4. Consider the following genotype: Yy Ss Hh. We have now added the gene for height: Tall (H) or Short (h).

a. How many different gamete combinations can be produced?

b. Many traits (phenotypes), like eye color, are controlled by multiple genes. If eye color were controlled by the number of genes indicated below, how many possible genotype combinations would there be in the following scenarios?

5 Eye Color Genes:

10 Eye Color Genes:

20 Eye Color Genes:

Experiment 1: Punnett Square Crosses

In this experiment you will use monohybrid and dihybrid crosses to predict patterns of inheritance.

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Materials

Blue Beads Green Beads Red Beads

  

Yellow Beads (2) 100 mL Beakers Permanent Marker
   

Procedure:

Part 1: Punnett Squares

1. Set up and complete Punnett squares for each of the following crosses: (remember Y = yellow, and y = blue)

Y Y and Y y Y Y and y y

2. What are the resulting phenotypes?

3. Are there any blue kernels? How can you tell?

4. Set up and complete a Punnett squares for a cross of two of the F1 from Step 1 (above).

5. What are the genotypes of the F2 generation?

6. What are their phenotypes?

7. Are there more or less blue kernels than in the F1 generation?

8. Identify the four possible gametes produced by the following individuals:

a) YY Ss:  ______ ______ ______  ______
b) Yy Ss: ______ ______ ______ ______
c) Create a Punnett square using these gametes as P and determine the genotypes of the F1:

What are the phenotypes? What is the ratio of those phenotypes?

Part 2 and 3 Setup

1. Use the permanent marker to label the two 100 mL beakers as “1” and “2”.

2. Pour 50 of the blue beads and 50 of the yellow beads into Beaker 1. Sift or stir the beads around to create a homogenous mixture.

3. Pour 50 of the red beads and 50 of the green beads into Beaker 2. Sift or stir the beads around to create a homogenous mixture.

Assumptions for the remainder of the experiment:

· Beaker 1 contains beads that are either yellow or blue.

· Beaker 2 contains beads that are either green or red.

· Both beakers contain approximately the same number of each colored bead.

· These colors correspond to the following traits (remember that Y/y is for kernel color and S/s is for smooth/wrinkled):

1. Yellow (Y) vs. Blue (y)

2. Green (G) vs. Red (g).

Part 2: Monohybrid Cross

1. Randomly (without looking) take two beads out of Beaker 1. This is the genotype of Individual #1. Record the genotype in Table 1. Do not put these beads back into the beaker.

Table 1: Parent Genotypes: Monohybrid Crosses
Generation Genotype of Individual 1 Genotype of Individual 2
P    
P1    
P2    
P3    
P4    

2. Repeat Step 1 for Individual #2. These two genotypes represent the parents (generation P) for the next generation.

3. Set up a Punnett square and determine the genotypes and phenotypes for this cross. Record your data in Table 2

4. Repeat Step 3 four more times (for a total of five subsequent generations). Return the beads to their respective beakers when finished.

Table 2: Generation Data Produced by Monohybrid Crosses
Parents Possible Offspring Genotypes Possible Offspring Phenotypes Genotype Ratio Phenotype Ratio
P        
P1        
P2        
P3        
P4        

Post-Lab Questions

Part 2: Monohybrid Cross

1. How much genotypic variation do you find in the randomly picked parents of your crosses?

2. How much in the offspring?

3. How much phenotypic variation?

4. Is the ratio of observed phenotypes the same as the ratio of predicted phenotypes? Why or why not?

5. Pool all of the offspring from your five replicates. How much phenotypic variation do you find?

6. What is the difference between genes and alleles?

7. How might protein synthesis execute differently if a mutation occurs?

8. Organisms heterozygous for a recessive trait are often called carriers of that trait. What does that mean?

9. In peas, green pods (G) are dominant over yellow pods. If a homozygous dominant plant is crossed with a homozygous recessive plant, what will be the phenotype of the F1 generation? If two plants from the F1 generation are crossed, what will the phenotype of their offspring be?

  © 2013 eScience Labs, LLC. All Rights Reserved    

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Human Genetics

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Please answer each question fully and in complete sentences. You may use textbook, or PowerPoint slides, and resources indicated in the questions below; if you use other resources, they must be cited properly in a working bibliography (author, article title, journal or book title, date of publication, page numbers)

Topic 8: Multifactorial and Acquired Developmental Traits

Should a woman be held legally responsible if she drinks alcohol, smokes, or abuses drugs during pregnancy and it harms her child (e.g., fetal alcohol syndrome)? If so, should liability apply to all substances that can harm a fetus, or only to those that are illegal? For example, we know that maternal weight gain in pregnancy is associated with an increased risk for diabetes in their children. What evidence or reasoning leads you to this opinion? State your opinion and then give sound reasoning for it.)

Topic 9: Multifactorial and Acquired Cancer Traits

Many genes contribute to lung cancer risk, especially among people who smoke tobacco. These genes include p53, IL1A, IL1B, CYP1A1, EPHX1, TERT, and CRR9. Search for one of these genes online and describe how mutations in the gene may contribute to causing lung cancer, or how polymorphisms in the gene may be associated with increased risk in combination with smoking. Be sure to choose a trustworthy source and cite the source with your answer.

Topic 10: Acquired Microbiome Traits

Malnutrition is common among children in the African nation of Malawi. Researchers hypothesized that the microbiome may play a role in starvation because in some families, some children are malnourished and their siblings are not, even though they eat the same diet. Even identical twins may differ in nutritional status.

Researchers followed 317 sets of twins in Malawi, from birth until age 3. In half of the twin pairs, one or both twins developed kwashiorkor, the type of protein malnutrition that swells bellies. The researchers focused on twin pairs in which only one was starving, including both identical and fraternal pairs. At the first sign that one twin was malnourished, both were placed on a diet of healthy “therapeutic food.” Four weeks later, the pair returned to the nutrient-poor village diet. If the malnourished twin became so again, then the researchers compared his or her microbiome to that of the healthy sibling. The goal was to identify bacterial species that impair the ability of a child to extract nutrients from the native diet. [Smith, et al. (2013) Gut microbiomes of Malawian twin pairs discordant for kwashiorkor. Science 339(6119):548-554.]

How might the findings from this study be applied to help prevent or treat malnutrition? Do you think that the study was conducted ethically? Why or why not? Explain how identical twins who follow the same diet can differ in nutritional status.

Topic 11: Multifactorial and Acquired Epigenetic Traits

The environmental epigenetics hypothesis states that early negative experiences, such as neglect, abuse, and extreme stress, increase the risk of developing depression, anxiety disorder, addictions, and/or obesity later in life through effects on gene expression that persist and can be passed on to the next generation. Suggest an experiment to test this hypothesis.

Topic 12: Genetics of Human Populations: Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium

Population bottlenecks are evident today in Arab communities, Israel, India, Thailand, Scandinavia, some African nations, and especially among indigenous peoples such as Native Americans. Research an indigenous or isolated population and describe a genetic condition that its members have that is rare among other groups of people, and how the population bottleneck occurred.

Topic 13: Human Evolution

Explain why analyzing mitochondrial DNA or Y chromosome DNA cannot provide a complete picture of an individual’s ancestry. How can a female trace her paternal lineage if she does not have a Y chromosome?

Topic 14: Biotechnology in Human Genetic Research

Go to clinicaltrials.gov and search under “gene therapy.” Describe one of the current research trials for correcting a genetic problem. Include information about the genetic condition if available, including: mode of inheritance, age of onset, symptom severity, variability in expression, existing treatments (standard of care), and how the gene therapy is proposed to correct the problem.

 
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NURS6630 Final Exam (2018): Walden University

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 NURS6630 Final Exam (2018): Walden University

 NURS6630 Final Exam (2018): Walden University

QUESTION 1

What will the PMHNP most likely prescribe to a patient with psychotic aggression who needs to manage the top-down cortical control and the excessive drive from striatal hyperactivity? (NURS6630 Final Exam (2018): Walden University)

A. Stimulants B. Antidepressants C. Antipsychotics D. SSRIs

QUESTION 2

The PMHNP is selecting a medication treatment option for a patient who is exhibiting psychotic behaviors with poor impulse control and aggression. Of the available treatments, which can help temper some of the adverse effects or symptoms that are normally caused by D2 antagonism?

A. First-generation, conventional antipsychotics B. First-generation, atypical antipsychotics C. Second-generation, conventional antipsychotics D. Second-generation, atypical antipsychotics

QUESTION 3

The PMHNP is discussing dopamine D2 receptor occupancy and its association with aggressive behaviors in patients with the student. Why does the PMHNP prescribe a standard dose of atypical antipsychotics? (NURS6630 Final Exam (2018): Walden University)

A. The doses are based on achieving 100% D2 receptor occupancy. B. The doses are based on achieving a minimum of 80% D2 receptor occupancy. C. The doses are based on achieving 60% D2 receptor occupancy. D. None of the above.

QUESTION 4

Why does the PMHNP avoid prescribing clozapine (Clozaril) as a first-line treatment to the patient with psychosis and aggression?

A. There is too high a risk of serious adverse side effects. B. It can exaggerate the psychotic symptoms. C. Clozapine (Clozaril) should not be used as high-dose monotherapy. D. There is no documentation that clozapine (Clozaril) is effective for patients who are violent.

QUESTION 5

The PMHNP is caring for a patient on risperidone (Risperdal). Which action made by the PMHNP exhibits proper care for this patient?

A. Explaining to the patient that there are no risks of EPS B. Prescribing the patient 12 mg/dail C. Titrating the dose by increasing it every 5–7 days D. Writing a prescription for a higher dose of oral risperidone (Risperdal) to achieve high D2 receptor occupancy

QUESTION 6

The PMHNP wants to prescribe Mr. Barber a mood stabilizer that will target aggressive and impulsive symptoms by decreasing dopaminergic neurotransmission. Which mood stabilizer will the PMHNP select? A. Lithium (Lithane) B. Phenytoin (Dilantin) C. Valproate (Depakote) D. Topiramate (Topamax)

QUESTION 7

The parents of a 7-year-old patient with ADHD are concerned about the effects of stimulants on their child. The parents prefer to start pharmacological treatment with a non-stimulant. Which medication will the PMHNP will most likely prescribe?

A. Strattera B. Concerta C. Daytrana D. Adderall

QUESTION 8

8 The PMHNP understands that slow-dose extended release stimulants are most appropriate for which patient with ADHD? (NURS6630 Final Exam (2018): Walden University)

A. 8-year-old patient B. 24-year-old patient C. 55-year-old patient D. 82-year-old patient

QUESTION 9

A patient is prescribed D-methylphenidate, 10-mg extended-release capsules. What should the PMHNP include when discussing the side effects with the patient?

A. The formulation can have delayed actions when taken with food. B. Sedation can be a common side effect of the drug. C. The medication can affect your blood pressure. D. This drug does not cause any dependency.

QUESTION 10

The PMHNP is teaching parents about their child’s new prescription for Ritalin. What will the PMHNP include in the teaching? (NURS6630 Final Exam (2018): Walden University)

A. The second dose should be taken at lunch. B. There are no risks for insomnia. C. There is only one daily dose, to be taken in the morning. D. There will be continued effects into the evening.

QUESTION 11

A young patient is prescribed Vyvanse. During the follow-up appointment, which comment made by the patient makes the PMHNP think that the dosing is being done incorrectly?

A. “I take my pill at breakfast.” B. “I am unable to fall asleep at night.” C. “I feel okay all day long.” D. “I am not taking my pill at lunch.”

QUESTION 12

A 14-year-old patient is prescribed Strattera and asks when the medicine should be taken. What does the PMHNP understand regarding the drug’s dosing profile?

A. The patient should take the medication at lunch. B. The patient will have one or two doses a day. C. The patient will take a pill every 17 hours. D. The dosing should be done in the morning and at night.

QUESTION 13

The PMHNP is meeting with the parents of an 8-year-old patient who is receiving an initial prescription for D-amphetamine. The PMHNP demonstrates appropriate prescribing practices when she prescribes the following dose:

A. The child will be prescribed 2.5 mg. B. The child will be prescribed a 10-mg tablet. C. The child’s dose will increase by 2.5 mg every other week. D. The child will take 10–40 mg, daily. (NURS6630 Final Exam (2018): Walden University)

QUESTION 14

A patient is being prescribed bupropion and is concerned about the side effects. What will the PMHNP tell the patient regarding bupropion?

A. Weight gain is not unusual. B. Sedation may be common. C. It can cause cardiac arrhythmias. D. It may amplify fatigue.

QUESTION 15

Which patient will receive a lower dose of guanfacine?

A. Patient who has congestive heart failure B. Patient who has cerebrovascular disease C. Patient who is pregnant D. Patient with kidney disease

QUESTION 16

An 18-year-old female with a history of frequent headaches and a mood disorder is prescribed topiramate (Topamax), 25 mg by mouth daily. The PMHNP understands that this medication is effective in treating which condition(s) in this patient?

A. Migraines B. Bipolar disorder and depression C. Pregnancy-induced depression D. Upper back pain

QUESTION 17

The PMHNP is treating a patient for fibromyalgia and is considering prescribing milnacipran (Savella). When prescribing this medication, which action is the PMHNP likely to choose? (NURS6630 Final Exam (2018): Walden University)

A. Monitor liver function every 6 months for a year and then yearly thereafter. B. Monitor monthly weight. C. Split the daily dose into two doses after the first day. D. Monitor for occult blood in the stool.

QUESTION 18

The PMHNP is assessing a patient she has been treating with the diagnosis of chronic pain. During the assessment, the patient states that he has recently been having trouble getting to sleep and staying asleep. Based on this information, what action is the PMHNP most likely to take? (NURS6630 Final Exam (2018): Walden University)

A. Order hydroxyzine (Vistaril), 50 mg PRN or as needed B. Order zolpidem (Ambien), 5mg at bedtime C. Order melatonin, 5mg at bedtime D. Order quetiapine (Seroquel), 150 mg at bedtime

QUESTION 19

The PMHNP is assessing a female patient who has been taking lamotrigine (Lamictal) for migraine prophylaxis. After discovering that the patient has reached the maximum dose of this medication, the PMHNP decides to change the patient’s medication to zonisamide (Zonegran). In addition to evaluating this patient’s day-to-day activities, what should the PMHNP ensure that this patient understands?

A. Monthly blood levels must be drawn. B. ECG monitoring must be done once every 3 months. C. White blood cell count must be monitored weekly. D. This medication has unwanted side effects such as sedation, lack of coordination, and drowsiness.

QUESTION 20

A patient recovering from shingles presents with tenderness and sensitivity to the upper back. He states it is bothersome to put a shirt on most days. This patient has end stage renal disease (ESRD) and is scheduled to have hemodialysis tomorrow but states that he does not know how he can lie in a recliner for 3 hours feeling this uncomfortable. What will be the PMHNP’s priority? (NURS6630 Final Exam (2018): Walden University)

A. Order herpes simplex virus (HSV) antibody testing B. Order a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine STAT C. Prescribe lidocaine 5% D. Prescribe hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2mg

QUESTION 21

The PMHNP prescribed a patient lamotrigine (Lamictal), 25 mg by mouth daily, for nerve pain 6 months ago. The patient suddenly presents to the office with the complaint that the medication is no longer working and complains of increased pain. What action will the PMHNP most likely take?

A. Increase the dose of lamotrigine (Lamictal) to 25 mg twice daily. B. Ask if the patient has been taking the medication as prescribed. C. Order gabapentin (Neurontin), 100 mg three times a day, because lamotrigine (Lamictal) is no longer working for this patient. D. Order a complete blood count (CBC) to assess for an infection.

QUESTION 22

An elderly woman with a history of Alzheimer’s disease, coronary artery disease, and myocardial infarction had a fall at home 3 months ago that resulted in her receiving an open reduction internal fixation. While assessing this patient, the PMHNP is made aware that the patient continues to experience mild to moderate pain. What is the PMHNP most likely to do? (NURS6630 Final Exam (2018): Walden University)

A. Order an X-ray because it is possible that she dislocated her hip. B. Order ibuprofen (Motrin) because she may need long-term treatment and chronic pain is not uncommon. C. Order naproxen (Naprosyn) because she may have arthritis and chronic pain is not uncommon. D. Order Morphine and physical therapy.

QUESTION 23

The PMHNP is assessing a 49-year-old male with a history of depression, post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), alcoholism with malnutrition, diabetes mellitus type 2, and hypertension. His physical assessment is unremarkable with the exception of peripheral edema bilaterally to his lower extremities and a chief complaint of pain with numbness and tingling to each leg 5/10. The PMHNP starts this patient on a low dose of doxepin (Sinequan). What is the next action that must be taken by the PMHNP? (NURS6630 Final Exam (2018): Walden University)

A. Orders liver function tests. B. Educate the patient on avoiding grapefruits when taking this medication. C. Encourage this patient to keep fluids to 1500 ml/day until the swelling subsides. D. Order a BUN/Creatinine test.

QUESTION 24

The PMHNP is evaluating a 30-year-old female patient who states that she notices pain and a drastic change in mood before the start of her menstrual cycle. The patient states that she has tried diet and lifestyle changes but nothing has worked. What will the PMHNP most likely do? A. Prescribe Estrin FE 24 birth control B. Prescribe ibuprofen (Motrin), 800 mg every 8 hours as needed for pain C. Prescribe desvenlafaxine (Pristiq), 50 mg daily D. Prescribe risperidone (Risperdal), 2 mg TID (NURS6630 Final Exam (2018): Walden University)

QUESTION 25

A patient with chronic back pain has been prescribed a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). How does the PMHNP describe the action of SNRIs on the inhibition of pain to the patient?

A. “The SNRI can increase noradrenergic neurotransmission in the descending spinal pathway to the dorsal horn.” B. “The SNRI can decrease noradrenergic neurotransmission in the descending spinal pathway to the dorsal horn.” C. “The SNRI can reduce brain atrophy by slowing the gray matter loss in the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex.” D. “The SNRI can increase neurotransmission to descending neurons.” (NURS6630 Final Exam (2018): Walden University)

QUESTION 26

A patient with fibromyalgia and major depression needs to be treated for symptoms of pain. Which is the PMHNP most likely to prescribe for this patient?

Venlafaxine (Effexor)

Duloxetine (Cymbalta)

Clozapine (Clozaril)

Phenytoin (Dilantin)

QUESTION 27

The PMHNP prescribes gabapentin (Neurontin) for a patient’s chronic pain. How does the PMHNP anticipate the drug to work?

A. It will bind to the alpha-2-delta ligand subunit of voltage-sensitive calcium channels. B. It will induce synaptic changes, including sprouting. C. It will act on the presynaptic neuron to trigger sodium influx. D. It will inhibit activity of dorsal horn neurons to suppress body input from reaching the brain.

QUESTION 28

Mrs. Rosen is a 49-year-old patient who is experiencing fibro-fog. What does the PMHNP prescribe for Mrs. Rosen to improve this condition? A. Venlafaxine (Effexor) B. Armodafinil (Nuvigil) C. Bupropion (Wellbutrin) D. All of the above

QUESTION 29

The PMHNP is caring for a patient with fibromyalgia. Which second-line treatment does the PMHNP select that may be effective for managing this patient’s pain? (NURS6630 Final Exam (2018): Walden University)

A. Methylphenidate (Ritalin) B. Viloxazine (Vivalan) C. Imipramine (Tofranil) D. Bupropion (Wellbutrin

QUESTION 30

The PMHNP is attempting to treat a patient’s chronic pain by having the agent bind the open channel conformation of VSCCs to block those channels with a “use-dependent” form of inhibition. Which agent will the PMHNP most likely select?

A. Pregabalin (Lyrica) B. Duloxetine (Cymbalta) C. Modafinil (Provigil) D. Atomoxetine (Strattera)

QUESTION 31

A patient with irritable bowel syndrome reports chronic stomach pain. The PMHNP wants to prescribe the patient an agent that will cause irrelevant nociceptive inputs from the pain to be ignored and no longer perceived as painful. Which drug will the PMHNP prescribe? (NURS6630 Final Exam (2018): Walden University)

A. Pregabalin (Lyrica) B. Gabapentin (Neurontin) C. Duloxetine (Cymbalta) D. B and C

QUESTION 32

The PMHNP wants to use a symptom-based approach to treating a patient with fibromyalgia. How does the PMHNP go about treating this patient?

A. Prescribing the patient an agent that ignores the painful symptoms by initiating a reaction known as “fibro-fog” B. Targeting the patient’s symptoms with anticonvulsants that inhibit gray matter loss in the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex C. Matching the patient’s symptoms with the malfunctioning brain circuits and neurotransmitters that might mediate those symptoms D. None of the above (NURS6630 Final Exam (2018): Walden University)

QUESTION 33

The PMHNP is working with the student to care for a patient with diabetic peripheral neuropathic pain. The student asks the PMHNP why SSRIs are not consistently useful in treating this particular patient’s pain. What is the best response by the PMHNP?

A. “SSRIs only increase norepinephrine levels.” B. “SSRIs only increase serotonin levels.” C. “SSRIs increase serotonin and norepinephrine levels.” D. “SSRIs do not increase serotonin or norepinephrine levels.”

QUESTION 34

A patient with gambling disorder and no other psychiatric comorbidities is being treated with pharmacological agents. Which drug is the PMHNP most likely to prescribe?

A. Antipsychotics B. Lithium C. SSRI D. Naltrexone

QUESTION 35

Kevin is an adolescent who has been diagnosed with kleptomania. His parents are interested in seeking pharmacological treatment. What does the PMHNP tell the parents regarding his treatment options?

A. “Naltrexone may be an appropriate option to discuss.” B. “There are many medicine options that treat kleptomania.” C. “Kevin may need to be prescribed antipsychotics to treat this illness.” D. “Lithium has proven effective for treating kleptomania.” (NURS6630 Final Exam (2018): Walden University)

QUESTION 36

Which statement best describes a pharmacological approach to treating patients for impulsive aggression?

A. Anticonvulsant mood stabilizers can eradicate limbic irritability. B. Atypical antipsychotics can increase subcortical dopaminergic stimulation. C. Stimulants can be used to decrease frontal inhibition. D. Opioid antagonists can be used to reduce drive.

QUESTION 37

A patient with hypersexual disorder is being assessed for possible pharmacologic treatment. Why does the PMHNP prescribe an antiandrogen for this patient?

A. It will prevent feelings of euphoria. B. It will amplify impulse control. C. It will block testosterone. D. It will redirect the patient to think about other things.

QUESTION 38

Mrs. Kenner is concerned that her teenage daughter spends too much time on the Internet. She inquires about possible treatments for her daughter’s addiction. Which response by the PMHNP demonstrates understanding of pharmacologic approaches for compulsive disorders?

A. “Compulsive Internet use can be treated similarly to how we treat people with substance use disorders.” B. “Internet addiction is treated with drugs that help block the tension/arousal state your daughter experiences.” C. “When it comes to Internet addiction, we prefer to treat patients with pharmaceuticals rather than psychosocial methods.” D. “There are no evidence-based treatments for Internet addiction, but there are behavioral therapies your daughter can try.”

QUESTION 39

Mr. Peterson is meeting with the PMHNP to discuss healthier dietary habits. With a BMI of 33, Mr. Peterson is obese and needs to modify his food intake. “Sometimes I think I’m addicted to food the way some people are addicted to drugs,” he says. Which statement best describes the neurobiological parallels between food and drug addiction?

A. There is decreased activation of the prefrontal cortex. B. There is increased sensation of the reactive reward system. C. There is reduced activation of regions that process palatability. D. There are amplified reward circuits that activate upon consumption.

QUESTION 40

The PMHNP is caring for a patient who reports excessive arousal at nighttime. What could the PMHNP use for a time-limited duration to shift the patient’s brain from a hyperactive state to a sleep state?

A. Histamine 2 receptor antagonist B. Benzodiazepines C. Stimulants D. Caffeine

QUESTION 41

The PMHNP is caring for a patient who experiences too much overstimulation and anxiety during daytime hours. The patient agrees to a pharmacological treatment but states, “I don’t want to feel sedated or drowsy from the medicine.” Which decision made by the PMHNP demonstrates proper knowledge of this patient’s symptoms and appropriate treatment options?

A. Avoiding prescribing the patient a drug that blocks H1 receptors B. Prescribing the patient a drug that acts on H2 receptors C. Stopping the patient from taking medicine that unblocks H1 receptors D.None of the above

QUESTION 42

The PMHNP is performing a quality assurance peer review of the chart of another PMHNP. Upon review, the PMHNP reviews the chart of an older adult patient in long-term care facility who has chronic insomnia. The chart indicates that the patient has been receiving hypnotics on a nightly basis. What does the PMHNP find problematic about this documentation?

A. Older adult patients are contraindicated to take hypnotics. B. Hypnotics have prolonged half-lives that can cause drug accumulation in the elderly. C. Hypnotics have short half-lives that render themselves ineffective for older adults. D. Hypnotics are not effective for “symptomatically masking” chronic insomnia in the elderly.

QUESTION 43

The PMHNP is caring for a patient with chronic insomnia who is worried about pharmacological treatment because the patient does not want to experience dependence. Which pharmacological treatment approach will the PMHNP likely select for this patient for a limited duration, while searching and correcting the underlying pathology associated with the insomnia?

A. Serotonergic hypnotics B. Antihistamines C. Benzodiazepine hypnotics D. Non-benzodiazepine hypnotics

QUESTION 44

The PMHNP is caring for a patient with chronic insomnia who would benefit from taking hypnotics. The PMHNP wants to prescribe the patient a drug with an ultra-short half-life (1–3 hours). Which drug will the PMHNP prescribe?

A. Flurazepam (Dalmane) B. Estazolam (ProSom) C. Triazolam (Halcion) D. Zolpidem CR (Ambien)

QUESTION 45

The PMHNP is attempting to treat a patient’s chronic insomnia and wishes to start with an initial prescription that has a half-life of approximately 1–2 hours. What is the most appropriate prescription for the PMHNP to make?

A. Triazolam (Halcion) B. Quazepam (Doral) C. Temazepam (Restoril) D. Flurazepam (Dalmane)

QUESTION 46

A patient with chronic insomnia asks the PMHNP if they can first try an over-the-counter (OTC) medication before one that needs to be prescribed to help the patient sleep. Which is the best response by the PMHNP?

A. “There are no over-the-counter medications that will help you sleep.” B. “You can choose from one of the five benzo hypnotics that are approved in the United States.” C. “You will need to ask the pharmacist for a non-benzodiazepine medicine.” D. “You can get melatonin over the counter, which will help with sleep onset.”

QUESTION 47

A patient with chronic insomnia and depression is taking trazodone (Oleptro) but complains of feeling drowsy during the day. What can the PMHNP do to reduce the drug’s daytime sedating effects?

A. Prescribe the patient an antihistamine to reverse the sedating effects B. Increasing the patient’s dose and administer it first thing in the morning C. Give the medicine at night and lower the dose D. None of the above

QUESTION 48

The PMHNP is teaching a patient with a sleep disorder about taking diphenhydramine (Benadryl). The patient is concerned about the side effects of the drug. What can the PMHNP teach the patient about this treatment approach?

A. “It can cause diarrhea.” B. “It can cause blurred vision.” C. “It can cause increased salivation.” D. “It can cause heightened cognitive effects.”

QUESTION 49

Parents of a 12-year-old boy want to consider attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) medication for their son. Which medication would the PMHNP start?

Methylphenidate Amphetamine salts Atomoxetine All of the above could potentially treat their son’s symptoms.

QUESTION 50

An adult patient presents with a history of alcohol addiction and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Given these comorbidities, the PMHNP determines which of the following medications may be the best treatment option?

A. Methylphenidate (Ritalin, Concerta) B. Amphetamine C. Atomoxetine (Strattera) D. Fluoxetine (Prozac)

QUESTION 51

An 8-year-old patient presents with severe hyperactivity, described as “ants in his pants.” Based on self-report from the patient, his parents, and his teacher; attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is suspected. What medication is the PMNHP most likely to prescribe?

A. Methylphenidate (Ritalin, Concerta) B. Clonidine (Catapres) C. Bupropion (Wellbutrin) D. Desipramine (Norpramin)

QUESTION 52

A 9-year-old female patient presents with symptoms of both attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and oppositional defiant disorder. In evaluating her symptoms, the PMHNP determines that which of the following medications may be beneficial in augmenting stimulant medication?

A. Bupropion (Wellbutrin) B. Methylphenidate (Ritalin, Concerta) C. Guanfacine ER (Intuniv) D. Atomoxetine (Strattera)

QUESTION 53

A PMHNP supervisor is discussing with a nursing student how stimulants and noradrenergic agents assist with ADHD symptoms. What is the appropriate response?

A. They both increase signal strength output dopamine (DA) and norepinephrine (NE). B. Dopamine (DA) and norepinephrine (NE) are increased in the prefrontal cortex. C. Noradrenergic agents correct reductions in dopamine (DA) in the reward pathway leading to increased ability to maintain attention to repetitive or boring tasks and resist distractions. D. All of the above.

QUESTION 54

A 43-year-old male patient is seeking clarification about treating attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) in adults and how it differs from treating children, since his son is on medication to treat ADHD. The PMHNP conveys a major difference is which of the following?

A. Stimulant prescription is more common in adults. B. Comorbid conditions are more common in children, impacting the use of stimulants in children. C. Atomoxetine (Strattera) use is not advised in children. D. Comorbidities are more common in adults, impacting the prescription of additional agents.

QUESTION 55

A 26-year-old female patient with nicotine dependence and a history of anxiety presents with symptoms of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Based on the assessment, what does the PMHNP consider?

A. ADHD is often not the focus of treatment in adults with comorbid conditions. B. ADHD should always be treated first when comorbid conditions exist. C. Nicotine has no reported impact on ADHD symptoms. D. Symptoms are often easy to treat with stimulants, given the lack of comorbidity with other conditions.

QUESTION 56

Which of the following is a true statement regarding the use of stimulants to treat attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?

A. In adults with both ADHD and anxiety, treating the anxiety with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs), or benzodiazepines and the ADHD with stimulants is most effective in treating both conditions. B. Signal strength output is increased by dialing up the release of dopamine (DA) and norepinephrine (NE). C. In conditions where excessive DA activation is present, such as psychosis or mania, comorbid ADHD should never be treated with stimulants. D. High dose and pulsatile delivery of stimulants that are short acting are preferred to treat ADHD.

QUESTION 57

The PMHNP is providing a workshop for pediatric nurses, and a question is posed about noradrenergic agents to treat ADHD. Which of the following noradrenergic agents have norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (NRI) properties that can treat ADHD?

A. Desipramine (Norpramin) B. Methylphenidate (Ritalin, Concerta) C. Atomoxetine (Strattera) D. Both “A” & “C” E. “C” only

QUESTION 58

A 71-year-old male patient comes to an appointment with his 65-year-old wife. They are both having concerns related to her memory and ability to recognize faces. The PMNHP is considering prescribing memantine (Namenda) based on the following symptoms:

A. Amnesia, aphasia, apnea B. Aphasia, apraxia, diplopia C. Amnesia, apraxia, agnosia D. Aphasia, agnosia, arthralgia

QUESTION 59

The PMHNP evaluates a patient presenting with symptoms of dementia. Before the PMHNP considers treatment options, the patient must be assessed for other possible causes of dementia. Which of the following answers addresses both possible other causes of dementia and a rational treatment option for Dementia?

A. Possible other causes: hypothyroidism, Cushing’s syndrome, multiple sclerosis Possible treatment option: memantine B. Possible other causes: hypothyroidism, adrenal insufficiency, hyperparathyroidism Possible treatment option: donepezil C. Possible other causes: hypothyroidism, adrenal insufficiency, niacin deficiency Possible treatment option: risperidone D. Possible other causes: hypothyroidism, Cushing’s syndrome, lupus erythematosus Possible treatment option: donepezil

QUESTION 60

A group of nursing students seeks further clarification from the PMHNP on how cholinesterase inhibitors are beneficial for Alzheimer’s disease patients. What is the appropriate response?

A. Acetylcholine (ACh) destruction is inhibited by blocking the enzyme acetylcholinesterase. B. Effectiveness of these agents occurs in all stages of Alzheimer’s disease. C. By increasing acetylcholine, the decline in some patients may be less rapid. D. Both “A” & “C.”

QUESTION 61

The PMHNP is assessing a patient who presents with elevated levels of brain amyloid as noted by positron emission tomography (PET). What other factors will the PMHNP consider before prescribing medication for this patient, and what medication would the PMHNP want to avoid given these other factors?

A. ApoE4 genotype and avoid antihistamines if possible B. Type 2 diabetes and avoid olanzapine C. Anxiety and avoid methylphenidate D. Both “A” & “B”

QUESTION 62

A 72-year-old male patient is in the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease. The PMHNP determines that improving memory is a key consideration in selecting a medication. Which of the following would be an appropriate choice?

A. Rivastigmine (Exelon) B. Donepezil (Aricept) C. Galantamine (Razadyne) D. All of the above

QUESTION 63

A 63-year-old patient presents with the following symptoms. The PMHNP determines which set of symptoms warrant prescribing a medication? Select the answer that is matched with an appropriate treatment.

A. Reduced ability to remember names is most problematic, and an appropriate treatment option is memantine. B. Impairment in the ability to learn and retain new information is most problematic, and an appropriate treatment option would be donepezil. C. Reduced ability to find the correct word is most problematic, and an appropriate treatment option would be memantine. D. Reduced ability to remember where objects are most problematic, and an appropriate treatment option would be donepezil.

QUESTION 64

A 75-year-old male patient diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease presents with agitation and aggressive behavior. The PMHNP determines which of the following to be the best treatment option?

A. Immunotherapy B. Donepezil (Aricept) C. Haloperidol (Haldol) D. Citalopram (Celexa) or Escitalopram (Lexapro)

QUESTION 65

The PMHNP has been asked to provide an in-service training to include attention to the use of antipsychotics to treat Alzheimer’s. What does the PMHNP convey to staff?

A. The use of antipsychotics may cause increased cardiovascular events and mortality. B. A good option in treating agitation and psychosis in Alzheimer’s patients is haloperidol (Haldol). C. Antipsychotics are often used as “chemical straightjackets” to over-tranquilize patients. D. Both “A” & “C.”

QUESTION 66

An 80-year-old female patient diagnosed with Stage II Alzheimer’s has a history of irritable bowel syndrome. Which cholinergic drug may be the best choice for treatment given the patient’s gastrointestinal problems?

A. Donepezil (Aricept) B. Rivastigmine (Exelon) C. Memantine (Namenda) D. All of the above

QUESTION 67

The PMHNP understands that bupropion (Wellbutrin) is an effective way to assist patients with smoking cessation. Why is this medication effective for these patients?

A. Bupropion (Wellbutrin) releases the dopamine that the patient would normally receive through smoking. B. Bupropion (Wellbutrin) assists patients with their cravings by changing the way that tobacco tastes. C. Bupropion (Wellbutrin) blocks dopamine reuptake, enabling more availability of dopamine. D. Bupropion (Wellbutrin) works on the mesolimbic neurons to increase the availability of dopamine.

QUESTION 68

Naltrexone (Revia), an opioid antagonist, is a medication that is used for which of the following conditions?

A. Alcoholism B. Chronic pain C. Abuse of inhalants D. Mild to moderate heroin withdrawal

QUESTION 69

A patient addicted to heroin is receiving treatment for detoxification. He begins to experience tachycardia, tremors, and diaphoresis. What medication will the PMHNP prescribe for this patient?

A. Phenobarbital (Luminal) B. Methadone (Dolophine) C. Naloxone (Narcan) D. Clonidine (Catapres)

QUESTION 70

A patient diagnosed with obsessive compulsive disorder has been taking a high-dose SSRI and is participating in therapy twice a week. He reports an inability to carry out responsibilities due to consistent interferences of his obsessions and compulsions. The PMHNP knows that the next step would be which of the following?

A. Decrease his SSRI and add buspirone (Buspar). B. Decrease his SSRI and add an MAOI. C. Decrease his SSRI steadily until it can be discontinued then try an antipsychotic to manage his symptoms. D. Keep his SSRI dosage the same and add a low-dose TCA.

QUESTION 71

The PMHNP is assessing a patient who will be receiving phentermine (Adipex-P)/topiramate (Topamax) (Qsymia). Which of the following conditions/diseases will require further evaluation before this medication can be prescribed?

A. Kidney disease stage II B. Obesity C. Cardiovascular disease D. Diabetes type II

QUESTION 72

The PMHNP prescribes an obese patient phentermine (Adipex-p)/topiramate ER (Topamax) (Qsymia), Why is topiramate (Topamax) often prescribed with phentermine (Adipex-P)?

A. Phentermine (Adipex-P) dose can be increased safely when taken with an anticonvulsant. B. Phentermine (Adipex-P) works by suppressing appetite while topiramate (Topamax) acts by inhibiting appetite. C. Topiramate (Topamax) potentiates appetite suppression achieved by phentermine (Adipex-P). D. Topiramate (Topamax) helps prevent the unwanted side effects of phentermine (Adipex-P).

QUESTION 73

The PMHNP is assessing a patient who has expressed suicidal intent and is now stating that he is hearing voices and sees people chasing him. The PMHNP identifies these symptoms to be associated with which of the following?

A. Barbiturate intoxication B. Marijuana intoxication C. “Bath salt” intoxication D. Cocaine intoxication

QUESTION 74

The PMHNP is caring for a patient who openly admitted to drinking a quart of vodka daily. Prior to prescribing this patient disulfiram (Antabuse), it is important for the PMHNP to:

A. Evaluate the patient’s willingness to abstain from alcohol B. Counsel the patient on dietary restrictions C. Obtain liver function tests D. Assess for addiction to opioids

QUESTION 75 An opioid-naive patient is taking MS Contin (morphine sulfate) to treat his pain that is secondary to cancer. Under what circumstances would the PMHNP order naloxone (Narcan) IM/SQ?

A. The patient’s speech is slurred, and he is in and out of sleep. B. The patient’s appetite has decreased from eating 100% of his meal to 50% of his meal. C. The patient complains of not having a bowel movement for 4 days. D. The patient’s vital signs are 98.4F temp, 88 pulse, 104/62 blood pressure, and 8 respirations.

QUESTION 76

When completing this exam, did you comply with Walden University’s Code of Conduct including the expectations for academic integrity?

Yes No

 

NURS 6630 Midterm Exam (2018): Walden University

QUESTION 1

1.      A noncompliant patient states, “Why do you want me to put this poison in my body?” Identify the best response made by the psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner (PMHNP).

A.

“You have to take your medication to become stable.”

B.

“Most medications will increase the number of neurotransmitters that you already have in the brain.”

C.

“Most medications used in treatment are either increasing or decreasing neurotransmitters that your body already has.”

D.

“Why do you believe that your medication is poison?”

QUESTION 2

1.      Which statement about neurotransmitters and medications is true?

A.

Natural neurotransmitters such as endorphins have been discovered after the development of medications.

B.

Some medications were developed after the discovery and known action of the neurotransmitters in the brain.

C.

Neurotransmitters receive messages from most medications.

D.

The neurotransmitter serotonin is directly linked to depression. Following this discovery, the antidepressant Prozac was developed.

1 points

QUESTION 3

1.      When an unstable patient asks why it is necessary to add medications to his current regimen, the PMHNP’s best response would be:

A.

“In an extreme case such as yours, more than one medication is often needed.”

B.

“Due to the ineffectiveness of your current medication, we need to try something else that can possibly potentiate its effects.

C.

“Medications are often specific to the neurotransmitter(s) they are affecting and, due to more than one neurotransmitter involvement, it is often necessary to use more than one medication to improve symptoms.”

D.

“I understand your concern. We can discontinue your current medication and switch to a different one that may better manage your symptoms.”

1 points

QUESTION 4 ?

1.      During gene expression, what must occur prior to a gene being expressed?

A.

Transcription factor must bind to the regulatory region within the cell’s nucleus.

B.

RNA must be converted to mRNA.

C.

The coding region must separate from the regulatory region. This is wrong

D.

RNA polymerase must inhibit the process of changing RNA to mRNA.

1 points

QUESTION 5

1.      While genes have potential to modify behavior, behavior can also modify genes. How do genes impact this process?

A.

Genes impact neuron functioning directly.

B.

Changes made to proteins lead to changes in behavior.

C.

Neurons are able to impact protein synthesis.

D.

Genes impact the DNA of a cell, leading to changes in behavior.

1 points

QUESTION 6

1.      Though medications have the ability to target neurotransmitters in the synapse, it is not always necessary. The PMHNP understands that this is because:

A.

Neurotransmission that occurs via the axon allows for transport of a neurotransmitter.

B.

Active transport is a different type of energy that allows the transport of certain neurotransmitters.

C.

Neurotransmitters can spread by diffusion.

D.

The postsynaptic neuron can release the neurotransmitter.

1 points

QUESTION 7

1.      Why is the cytochrome P450 enzyme system of significance to the PMHNP?

A.

The kidneys play a role with excretion of the medication, and if a patient has kidney damage, the dose must be increased to be effective.

B.

The bioavailability of the medication after it passes through the stomach and liver can be altered. Correct answer

C.

The medication’s chemical composition changes when it comes in contact with the acid in the stomach.

D.

The CYP enzyme system is a steady and predictable process that prescribers must understand to treat conditions effectively.

1 points

QUESTION 8

1.      It is important for the PMHNP to recognize differences in pharmacokinetics to safely prescribe and monitor medications. Which of the following statements does the competent PMHNP identify as true?

A.

About 1 out of 5 Asians requires lower-than-normal doses of some antidepressants and antipsychotics.

B.

The term polymorphic refers to the body’s ability to break a medication down several ways, and this patient may require higher doses of certain antidepressants and antipsychotics.

C.

About 1 out of 30 Caucasians requires lower doses of some antidepressants and antipsychotics.

D.

Most enzyme pathways do not have interactions between the newer medications.

1 points

QUESTION 9

1.      As it relates to G-protein linked receptors, what does the PMHNP understand about medications that are used in practice?

A.

Most medications that act on G-protein linked receptors have antagonistic traits.

B.

The majority of medications used in practice are full agonists and are used to stimulate the body’s natural neurotransmitters.

C.

Most medications act as partial agonists because they allow the body to use only what is needed.

D.

Medications used in practice may act as inverse agonists if the dosage is too high.

1 points

QUESTION 10

1.      The PMHNP is considering prescribing a 49-year-old male clozapine (Clozaril) to treat his schizophrenia and suicidal ideations. The PMHNP is aware that which factor may impact the dose needed to effectively treat his condition:

A.

The patient smokes cigarettes.

B.

The patient has hypertension.

C.

The patient has chronic kidney disease, stage 2.

D.

The patient drinks a cup of coffee a day.

1 points

QUESTION 11

1.      A patient is diagnosed with bipolar disorder and is currently taking carbamazepine (Tegretol), aripiprazole (Abilify), and melatonin. The PMHNP has just written an order to discontinue the carbamazepine (Tegretol) for drug-induced thrombocytopenia. The PMHNP is aware that his next best action is to:

A.

Alert staff to possible seizures

B.

Write an order for a different moodstabilizer

C.

Decrease the amount prescribed for aripiprazole (Abilify)

D.

Explain to the patient that it will be more difficult to control his temper

1 points

QUESTION 12

1.      A patient recently transferred following a suicide attempt has a history of schizophrenia, depression, and fibromyalgia. He is currently taking Amitriptyline (Elavil), Lisinopril, aspirin, and fluoxetine (Prozac). Which is the best action for the PMHNP to take for this patient?

A.

Review Amitriptyline (Elavil) level

B.

Order a liver function test

C.

Check the patient’s blood pressure and pulse

D.

Order a stat platelet count

1 points

QUESTION 13

1.      A patient with schizophrenia is given an inverse agonist that acts on the receptor 5HT and neurotransmitter serotonin. What is the rationale for prescribing a medication such as this?

A.

To promote the availability of serotonin

B.

To decrease serotonin

C.

To indirectly increase the amount of dopamine in the body

D.

To help decrease the amount of serotonin and dopamine

1 points

QUESTION 14

1.      The PMHNP is caring for four patients. Which patient statement indicates that benzodiazepines would be beneficial?

A.

“I have trouble staying asleep in the middle of the night.”

B.

“My spouse told me that I seem to have trouble remembering things sometimes.”

C.

“I really want to stop smoking, but the cravings are too strong.”

D.

“I feel nervous to go outside and be in large crowds.”

1 points

QUESTION 15

1.      Ms. Harlow is a 42-year-old patient who is prescribed a drug that acts on ionotropic receptors. She is curious about the effects of the drug and how it will act on her symptoms. Which statement made by the PMHNP demonstrates proper understanding of Ms. Harlow’s prescription?

A.

“The drug will have an almost immediate effect.”

B.

“The drug can take a while to build up in your system.”

C.

“The drug is slow to release but lasts for a long time.”

D.

“The drug will make a subtle difference in your symptoms.”

1 points

QUESTION 16

1.      A patient is seeking pharmacological treatment for smoking cessation. Which drug class does the PMHNP prescribe to the patient?

A.

Benzodiazepine

B.

Mirtazapine (Remeron)

C.

Ketamine

D.

Varenicline (Chantix)

1 points

QUESTION 17

1.      The PMHNP is caring for a new patient who has been transferred from another office. When meeting with the new patient, the patient reports, “I feel like I am improving with the stabilizers.” The PMHNP immediately recognizes that the patient is describing which kind of drug? (NURS6630 Final Exam (2018): Walden University)

A.

Full agonists

B.

Antagonists

C.

Partial agonists

D.

Inverse agonists

1 points

QUESTION 18

1.      A patient presents with frequent episodes of mania. Which statement describes an appropriate treatment approach for this patient?

A.

“The patient needs to have an inverse agonist.”

B.

“The patient could benefit from an anticonvulsant.”

C.

“The patient’s calcium, sodium, chloride, and potassium levels must be regulated.”

D.

“The patient should have a drug that acts on ligand-gated ion channels.”

1 points

QUESTION 19

1.      The PHMNP is caring for a patient who would benefit from nicotine cholinergic, serotonin 3, or glycine receptors. What kind of agent does the PHMNP want to prescribe for this patient?

A.

Ligand-gated ion channels with a pentameric structure

B.

Ligand-gated ion channels with a tetrameric structure

C.

Voltage-sensitive ion channels

D.

Anticonvulsants

1 points

QUESTION 20 ?

1.      Which statement made by the patient suggests the patient will need to be treated with antipsychotics that target paranoid psychosis?

A.

“It’s my fault that all of this is happening. I don’t think I could ever forgive myself.”

B.

“I have to talk to the President because I’m the only one who can help him.”

C.

“I’m not sure why that lady is wearing a red jacket since it’s the dogs who need food.”

D.

“I don’t know that I even want to go to that meeting. It doesn’t seem worth it anymore.”

1 points

QUESTION 21

1.      A patient has been treated with a number of novel psychotropic drugs. How is it theoretically possible to identify cognitive improvement in the patient using neuropsychological assessment batteries after the pharmacologic therapy? I did not have this question

A.

Obtaining raw normative metrics and using them to assess functionality

B.

Having the patient report on cognitive function based on personal experiences

C.

Monitoring the patient in a controlled setting

D.

Measuring symptoms of psychosis

1 points

QUESTION 22

1.      Mr. McCullin is 64 years old with Parkinson’s disease. The PMHNP caring for Mr. McCullin wants to start him on a dopamine agonist to help manage and treat his condition. The PHMNP selects this agent because of which action it has on patients like Mr. McCullin?

A.

Dopamine is terminated through multiple mechanisms.

B.

The D2 autoreceptor regulates release of dopamine from the presynaptic neuron.

C.

MAO-B presents in the mitochondria within the presynaptic neuron.

D.

D2 receptors are the primary binding site for dopamine agonists.

1 points

QUESTION 23

1.      Mrs. Trevor is a 44-year-old patient who does not have a diagnosis of schizophrenia but occasionally reports symptoms of psychosis, followed by severe fatigue. Mrs. Trevor inquires about the use of amphetamines to help with her energy levels. Which response made by the PMHNP is most appropriate?

A.

“Amphetamines may help you, as they can alleviate psychotic conditions.”

B.

“Amphetamines can inhibit negative symptoms of schizophrenia, so this might be a good choice for you.”

C.

“Amphetamines can cause hallucinations, so I would advise against this type of prescription.”

D.

“Amphetamines can lead to a dopamine deficiency, so I will not prescribe this for you.”

1 points

QUESTION 24

1.      The PMHNP is caring for a patient with schizophrenia and is considering a variety of treatment approaches. The PHMNP selects a viable treatment that is consistent with the “dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia.” What action does the PMHNP anticipate this treatment having on the patient?

A.

Blocking the release of dopamine facilitates the onset of positive schizophrenia symptoms.

B.

Hyperactivity in the mesolimbic dopamine pathway mediates the positive symptoms of schizophrenia.

C.

Antipsychotic drugs that open D2 receptor pathways can treat schizophrenia.

D.

The neuroanatomy of dopamine neuronal pathways can explain symptoms of schizophrenia.

1 points

QUESTION 25

1.      A patient is diagnosed with schizophrenia. What increases the patient’s potential to mediate the cognitive symptoms of the disease?

A.

Achieving underactivity of the mesocorticol projections to the prefrontal cortex

B.

Achieving overactivity of the mesocorticol projections to the ventromedial prefrontal cortex

C.

Achieving underactivity of the mesocortical projections to the ventromedial prefrontal cortex

D.

Achieving overactivity of the mesocorticol projections to the prefrontal cortex

1 points

QUESTION 26

1.      The PMNHP is assessing a 29-year-old patient who takes antipsychotics that block D2 receptors. What patient teaching should the PMHNP include related to the possible side effects of this type of drug?

A.

Hypersexuality

B.

Amenorrhea

C.

Dystonia

D.

Tardive dyskinesia

A.

1 points

QUESTION 27

1.      The PMHNP is caring for a patient who is taking antipsychotics heard the psychiatrist tell the patient that the patient would be placed on a different antipsychotic agent. Which of the following requires the longest transition time for therapeutic benefit?

Olanzapine to clozapine

B.

Asenapine to Risperidone

C.

Aripripazole to ziprasidone

D.

Aripripazole to clozapine

1 points

QUESTION 28

1.      The PMHNP is assessing a patient who has cirrhosis of the liver and anticipates that the patient will be prescribed an antipsychotic. Which medication does the PMHNP suspect will be ordered for this patient?

A.

Quetiapine

B.

Paliperidone

C.

Lurasidone

D.

Clozapine

1 points

QUESTION 29

1.      Which statement made by the PMHNP exemplifies correct teaching of physiological effects in the body?

A.

Muscarinic antagonists are more likely to cause decreased prolactin levels.

B.

D2 antagonists decrease the likelihood of EPS symptoms.

C.

D2 antagonism is linked to antidepressant properties.

D.

D2 partial agonists are associated with increased efficacy in treating positive symptoms of schizophrenia.

1 points

QUESTION 30

1.      Mrs. Schwartzman is a 52-year-old patient with schizophrenia and no established history of depression. When meeting with the PMHNP, she presents with apathy and withdrawn social behavior, and she reports a loss of joy from enjoyable activities. What does the PMHNP infer from this encounter with the patient?

A.

An underlying depressive disorder

B.

The recent change of a 2nd generation antipsychotic to a conventional one

C.

The recent change of a 1st generation antipsychotic to a 2nd generation antipsychotic

D.

All of the above

1 points

QUESTION 31

1.      The PMHNP is taking a history on a patient who has been on antipsychotics for many years. Which risk factors are most likely to contribute to a person developing tardive dyskinesia (TD)?

A.

Long-term use of antipsychotics

B.

Genetic disposition

C.

Age

D.

A and C

E.

All of the above

1 points

QUESTION 32

1.      The student inquires about antipsychotic medications. Which response by the PMHNP describes nthe factors that contribute to reduced risk of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) for patients who take antipsychotics?

A.

Those that are potent D2 antagonists

B.

Those that are potent D2 antagonists with 5HT2A antagonism properties

C.

D2 receptors that are blocked in the nigrostriatal pathway

D.

Potent D2 antagonists that block the muscarinic anti-M1 cholinergic receptors

1 points

QUESTION 33

1.      Mr. Gordon is a middle-aged patient who is taking antipsychotics. When meeting with the PMHNP, he reports positive responses to the medication, stating, “I really feel as though the effects of my depression are going away.” Which receptor action in antipsychotic medications is believed to be the most beneficial in producing the effects described by Mr. Gordon?

A.

5HT2 antagonism

B.

D2 antagonism

C.

Alpha-2 antagonism

D.

D2 partial agonist

1 points

QUESTION 34

1.      A patient who was recently admitted to the psychiatric nursing unit is being treated for bipolar disorder. Which neurotransmitter is the PMHNP most likely to target with pharmaceuticals?

A.

Norepinephrine

B.

Dopamine

C.

Serotonin

D.

A and C

E.

All of the above

1 points

QUESTION 35

1.      Ms. Ryerson is a 28-year-old patient with a mood disorder. She recently requested to transfer to a new PMHNP, after not getting along well with her previous provider. The new PHMNP is reviewing Ms. Ryerson’s medical chart prior to their first appointment. Upon review, the PMHNP sees that the former provider last documented “patient had rapid poop out.” What does the PMHNP infer about the patient’s prescription based on this documentation?

A.

The patient has an unsustained response to antidepressants.

B.

The patient has antidepressant-induced hypomania.

C.

The patient has a depletion of monoamine neurotransmitters.

D.

The patient has an adverse effect to atypical antipsychotics.

1 points

QUESTION 36

1.      The PMHNP recognizes that which patient would be contraindicated for antidepressant monotherapy? (NURS6630 Final Exam (2018): Walden University)

A.

Patient with a bipolar I designation

B.

Patient with a bipolar II designation

C.

Patient with a bipolar III designation

D.

None of the above

1 points

QUESTION 37

1.      Why does the PMHNP avoid treating a patient with cyclothymia, and has major depressive episodes, with antidepressant monotherapy?

A.

The patient may experience paranoid avoidant behavior.

B.

The patient may experience severe depression.

C.

The patient may experience auditory hallucinations.

D.

The patient may experience increased mood cycling.

1 points

QUESTION 38

1.      The PMHNP is caring for a patient with the s genotype of SERT. What does the PMHNP understand regarding this patient’s response to selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)/SNRI treatment?

A.

The patient has a higher chance of tolerating SSRI/SNRI treatment.

B.

The patient will have a positive response to SSRI/SNRI treatment.

C.

The patient will develop severe mood cycling in response to treatment.

D.

The patient may be less responsive or tolerant to the treatment.

1 points

QUESTION 39

1.      Ms. Boeckh is a 42-year-old patient with major depression. The PMHNP understands that which action of norepinephrine will affect Ms. Boeckh’s serotonin levels?

A.

Norepinephrine potentiates 5HT release through a2 postsynaptic receptors.

B.

Norepinephrine inhibits 5HT release through a2 receptors.

C.

Norepinephrine inhibits α2 receptors on axon terminals.

D.

Norepinephrine potentiates 5HT release through a1 and a2 receptors.

1 points

QUESTION 40

1.      Which statement made by the PMHNP correctly describes the relationship between NE neurons and pharmaceutical treatment?

A.

“Drugs inhibit the release of NE.”

B.

“Drugs can mimic the natural functioning of the NE neuron.”

C.

“Drugs are unable to simulate the effects of NE neurons.”

D.

“Drugs prevent the natural functioning of the NE neuron by stopping the presynaptic a2 neuron.”

1 points

QUESTION 41

1.      The PMHNP is assessing a patient in the psychiatric emergency room. The patient tells the PMHNP that he does not understand why his depression has not lifted after being on four different antidepressants over the course of a year. Which of the following symptoms can be residual symptoms for patients who do not achieve remission with major depressive disorder?

A.

Insomnia

B.

Suicidal ideation

C.

Problems concentrating

D.

A and C

1 points

QUESTION 42

1.      Fluoxetine (Prozac) has been prescribed for a patient. Which of the following statements is true regarding the action of this medication?

A.

Neuronal firing rates are not dysregulated in depression.

B.

Blocking the presynaptic SERT will immediately lead to a great deal of serotonin in many synapses.

C.

Upon the acute administration of a SSRI, 5HT decreases.

D.

The action at the somatodendritic end of the serotonin neuron may best explain the therapeutic action of SSRIs.

1 points

QUESTION 43

1.      The nurse educator knows that teaching was effective when one of the students compares fluvoxamine to sertraline and notes which of the following similarities?

A.

Both have a sedative-like, calming effect.

B.

Both contribute to antipsychotic actions.

C.

Both demonstrate favorable findings in treating depression in the elderly.

D.

Both are known for causing severe withdrawal symptoms such as dizziness, restlessness, and akathisia.

1 points

QUESTION 44

1.      A 45-year-old female patient with allergic rhinitis and normal blood pressure has had no reduction in depressive symptoms after trying bupropion, paroxetine, and venlafaxine. What precautions are needed in considering monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOI) in treating her depression?

A.

Since all MAOIs require dietary restrictions, the patient will need to avoid all cheeses and aged, smoked, or fermented meats.

B.

The patient cannot take any antihistamines.

C.

The patient cannot have two wisdom teeth extracted while on a MAnOI.

D.

The patient will need to minimize dietary intake of foods such as tap and unpasteurized beer, aged cheeses, and soy products/tofu.

1 points

QUESTION 45

1.      After sitting in on an interdisciplinary treatment team meeting, the student nurse asks the instructor to explain a system-based approach to the treatment of depression. What is the appropriate response?

A.

Symptoms help create a diagnosis, then symptoms are deconstructed into a list of specific symptoms experienced by a patient.

B.

Symptoms are matched first with the brain circuits that hypothetically mediate them and then with the known neuropharmacological regulation of these circuits by neurotransmitters.

C.

Treatment options that target neuropharmacological mechanisms are selected to eliminate symptoms one by one.

D.

All of the above.

1 points

QUESTION 46

1.      A 51-year-old female patient presents with symptoms of depression, including lack of motivation and difficulty sleeping. What risk factors would increase her vulnerability for a diagnosis of depression?

A.

First onset in puberty or early adulthood

B.

Late onset of menses

C.

Premenstrual syndrome

D.

A and C

1 points

QUESTION 47

1.      A nurse overhears that a patient has failed single therapy with an SSRI and SNRI. She also learns that the patient has been on dual SSRI/SNRI therapy without adequate symptom control. She approaches the PMHNP and asks what the next treatment option could be in this seemingly treatment-resistant patient. The PMHNP tells the nurse she will treat the patient with the following regimen:

A.

MAOI plus SNRI

B.

SSRI/SNRI plus NDRI

C.

NDRI/SNRI plus mirtazapine

D.

NDRI plus modafinil

1 points

*Q/UESTION 48

1.      Mrs. Radcliff is a 42-year-old patient who is considering stopping paroxetine. Why does her PMHNP advise against this abrupt discontinuation of the medicine?

A.

She may experience withdrawal symptoms.

B.

She may experience increased trauma.

C.

Effects of abrupt cessation are unknown.

D.

It can lead to difficulties with concentration.

1 points

QUESTION 49

1.      A patient is prescribed fluoxetine but is concerned about the side effects. Which statement demonstrates accurate patient teaching when discussing the side effects associated with fluoxetine?

A.

Weight gain can be problematic.

B.

Sedation is very common.

C.

Induction of mania is rare.

D.

Seizures are not unusual.

1 points

QUESTION 50

1.      The PMHNP is caring for a patient with anxiety who develops mild to moderate hepatic impairment. Which action does the PMHNP take regarding the use of venlafaxine?

A.

Stop the venlafaxine

B.

Lower the dose of venlafaxine by 50%

C.

Lower the dose of venlafaxine by 25-40%

D.

Increase the dose of venlafaxine by 50%

1 points

QUESTION 51

1.      A 25-year-old female patient is being prescribed milnacipran to treat fibromyalgia, and expresses concern regarding “how she will feel and look” from taking the medicine. Which statement correctly describes the side effects as a result of taking this medication?

A.

It can affect her menstruation.

B.

Suicidality can be common among young adults.

C.

Sedation may be problematic.

D.

Weight gain is unusual.

1 points

QUESTION 52

1.      Mr. Ruby is a 33-year-old single father who is requesting pharmacological intervention to treat his fibromyalgia. The PMHNP sees in the medical chart that he has a recent diagnosis of arrhythmia and a BMI of 29. During his assessment, the PMHNP learns that Mr. Ruby works 40-50 hours a week as a contractor and “manages his stress” by smoking 3-4 cigarettes a day and having 8-10 drinks of alcohol each week. Why would duloxetine be contraindicated for Mr. Ruby?

A.

He has fibromyalgia.

B.

He has arrhythmia.

C.

He uses alcohol.

D.

He is overweight.

1 points

QUESTION 53

1.      A patient is prescribed sertraline to treat panic disorder. Knowing that sertraline can initially cause anxiety or insomnia, what should the PMHNP do?

A.

Prescribe long-acting benzodiazepine for 2 weeks, then increase the dose.

B.

Prescribe short-acting benzodiazepine for 2 weeks, then discontinue.

C.

Prescribe long-acting benzodiazepine for 2 weeks, then discontinue.

D.

Prescribe short-acting benzodiazepine for 2 weeks, then increase the dose.

1 points

QUESTION 54

1.      A patient is prescribed 50 mg of desvenlafaxine to take every other day for major depressive disorder. What does the PMHNP understand about this patient?

A.

The patient has hepatic impairment.

B.

The patient has moderate renal impairment.

C.

The patient has severe renal impairment.

D.

The patient has cardiac impairment.

1 points

QUESTION 55

1.      The PMHNP understands that which mechanism contributes to a worse tolerability profile for patients taking tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)?

A.

Histamine H1 receptor blockade can cause insomnia.

B.

Muscarinic M1 receptor blockade causes blurred vision.

C.

Alpha 1 adrenergic receptor blockade causes weight gain.

D.

Muscarinic M3 receptor blockade causes sedation.

1 points

QUESTION 56

1.      A patient who was prescribed an MAO inhibitor is learning about dietary modifications. Which statement made by the PMHNP demonstrates proper teaching of the food-drug interactions for MAO inhibitors?

A.

“You must avoid soy products, such as tofu.”

B.

“You should not consume processed meats.”

C.

“You may consume fermented foods, like sauerkraut.”

D.

“You may continue to drink beers on tap.”

1 points

QUESTION 57

1.      A patient who is prescribed MAO inhibitors asks about whether he can continue taking pseudoephedrine to relieve his congestion. Which response by the PMHNP indicates proper understanding of drug-drug interactions?

A.

“Decongestants are fine to continue taking with MAO inhibitors.”

B.

“Decongestants are okay to take with MAO inhibitors in moderation.”

C.

“Decongestants should be avoided due to risk of serotonin syndrome.”

D.

“Decongestants should be avoided due to risk of hypertensive crisis.”

1 points

QUESTION 58

1.      Ms. Skidmore presents for a follow-up appointment after being prescribed phenelzine (Nardil), and reports “I take my 45 mg pill, three times a day, just like I’m supposed to.” What does the PMHNP understand about this patient? (NURS6630 Final Exam (2018): Walden University)

A.

Ms. Skidmore is taking the correct dose of phenelzine (Nardil).

B.

Ms. Skidmore is not taking enough of the phenelzine (Nardil); she should be taking three times that amount.

C.

Ms. Skidmore is taking too much of the phenelzine (Nardil); she should be taking the 45 mg in three doses.

D.

Ms. Skidmore is taking too much of the phenelzine (Nardil); she is supposed to take 45 mg every 24 hours.

1 points

QUESTION 59

1.      The PMHNP is caring for several patients who present with various symptoms and health issues. For which patient does the PMHNP prescribe pregabalin (Lyrica)?

A.

Patient with PTSD

B.

Patient with partial seizures

C.

Patient with galactose intolerance

D.

Patient with Lapp lactase deficiency

1 points

QUESTION 60

1.      Mr. Gutier is 72 years old with anxiety and depressive symptoms. His PMHNP is prescribing lorazepam (Ativan). What does the PMHNP understand regarding this prescription?

A.

The PMHNP will prescribe less than 2-6 mg for Mr. Gutier to take daily.

B.

The PMHNP will require Mr. Gutier to take 2-4 doses of lorazepam (Ativan) per day.

C.

The PMHNP will prescribe more than 2-6 mg for Mr. Gutier to take daily.

D.

The PMHNP will have Mr. Gutier take 6 mg of lorazepam (Ativan) as a PRN.

1 points

QUESTION 61

1.      A patient is being prescribed a sedating antidepressant, but is concerned about weight gain. Which medication is most likely to be prescribed to addresses the patient’s concerns?

A.

mirtazapine (Remeron)

B.

doxepin (Silenor)

C.

alprazolam (Xanax)

D.

trazadone (Oleptro)

1 points

QUESTION 62

1.      A patient who was diagnosed with bipolar disorder without mania, asks the PMHNP why he is being prescribed a mood stabilizer. What is the appropriate response?

A.

Mood stabilizers are only prescribed to treat manic phases of bipolar depression

B.

Mood stabilizers can consistently treat both mania and bipolar depression

C.

Mood stabilizers can target mania and mania relapse and also reduce symptoms of bipolar depression and relapse of bipolar depression symptoms but no drug has been proven to target all four therapeutic actions

D.

Certain mood stabilizers, such as lithium, are able to consistently target mania and bipolar depression

1 points

QUESTION 63

1.      The PMHNP is assessing a patient in the emergency room. The patient shares that he has been on lithium (Lithobid) for many years. What blood tests does the PMHMP order?

A.

Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)

B.

Complete Blood Count (CBC)

C.

Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate

D.

Platelet Count

1 points

QUESTION 64

1.      A 39-year old female patient presently on lithium would like to try a new medication to treat her bipolar disorder. She has had concerns about side effects from lithium and wants to learn more about Lamotrigine (Lamictal) as a treatment option. The PMHNP conveys some of the unique aspects of this agent, including which of the following?  I don’t think I had this question

A.

There is some indication lamotrigine can prevent progression from mild cognitive impairment to Alzheimer’s disease

B.

Lamotrigine may cause rashes, including the life-threatening Stevens-Johnson syndrome

C.

It was one of the first anticonvulsants approved by the FDA to treat bipolar depression

D.

There is a risk for amenorrhea and polycystic ovarian disease in women of childbearing age

1 points

QUESTION 65

1.      A nursing student is seeking clarification on the use of anticonvulsants to treat depression and is unclear about most effective outcomes. Which of the following agents does the PMHNP convey as having uncertain outcomes?

A.

Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

B.

Gabapentin (Neurontin)

C.

Valporoic Acid (Depakene)

D.

All of the above

1 points

QUESTION 66

1.      A 46-year old male patient mentions several alternative treatments to Carbamazepine (Tegretol) as a way to manage symptoms of his bipolar depression. Which of the following does the PMHNP indicate would not be an agent to treat bipolar depression? (NURS6630 Final Exam (2018): Walden University)

A.

Omega-3-fatty-acids

B.

Soybean lecithin

C.

Inositol

D.

L-methylfolate

1 points

QUESTION 67

1.      The PMHNP is meeting with a new mother who would like to begin taking medication again to treat her bipolar depression; she is breastfeeding her 2-month old daughter. The PMHNP recognizes that which of the following medications is contraindicated for this patient?

A.

Valporic Acid (Depakene)

B.

Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

C.

Lithium (Lithobid)

D.

Lamotrigine (Lamictal)

1 points

QUESTION 68

1.      The PMHNP assesses a 10-year old male child in the ER and suspects mania. Which of the following symptoms and recommendations for follow-up evaluation are appropriate?

A.

Irritability, euphoria, anger; the child should be evaluated further for conduct disorder.

B.

Irritability, violent outbursts, hyperactivity; the child should also be evaluated further for ADHD

C.

Irritability, lethargy, anger; the child should be evaluated further for ADHD.

D.

Irritability, acute mania, hyperactivity; the child should be evaluated further for conduct disorder.

1 points

QUESTION 69

1.      A patient was diagnosed with GAD 4 weeks ago and was placed on Clonazepam (klonopin) twice a day and citalopram (citalopram (celexa)) once daily. When he asks the PMHNP why it is necessary to wean him off of the Clonazepam (klonopin) the best response is:

A.

Clonazepam (klonopin) may interfere with citalopram (celexa)s targeted areas in the brain

B.

Clonazepam (klonopin) is not recommended for long term use due to possible sedation

C.

Clonazepam (klonopin) was used as an aid to treat your condition while you were adjusting to citalopram (celexa)

D.

Clonazepam (klonopin) and citalopram (celexa) target the same area in the brain and after long-term use they will begin to compete making one more or less effective than the other

1 points

QUESTION 70

1.      During assessment a patient states “Why are you asking me about my heart, I am here for my head”, the PMHNP’s best response is:

A.

“Some medications can cause heart issues so it is necessary to rule those out before you begin medication.”

B.

“This is a part of our routine admission and it is important that you give me truthful answers.”

C.

“Chronic conditions such as Lupus can cause an area in your brain to malfunction, specifically your hippocampus.”

D.

“Anxiety can cause cortisol levels to increase and when this happens frequently it puts you at risk for comorbidities such as type 2 diabetes.”

1 points

QUESTION 71

1.      The PMHNP understands that the potential of alcohol abuse in the anxious patient is higher for the following reason: A.

Alcohol is legal and is a common way that most people deal with their problems.

B.

Alcohol works similar to benzodiazepines

C.

Up to 30% of people with anxiety use alcohol to self-medicate

D.

Alcohol increases serotonin at the synapse and the patient may temporarily feel happy

1 points

QUESTION 72

1.      After ordering flumazenil (Rumazicon) the PMHNP cautions the staff to monitor for which possible effect?

a.

Respiratory depression

b.

Sedation and restlessness

c.

Sweating and nausea (This question was marked wrong but I think the answers are different too)

d.

Bradycardia and tachypnea

1 points

QUESTION 73

1.      A patient  is prescribed escitalopram (Lexapro) for his anxiety. When he asks why he was given an antidepressant the PMHNP’s best response is:

A.

“SSRIs are used to treat anxiety because serotonin has been proven to help with feelings of fear and worry.”

B.

“Even though you were diagnosed with anxiety there is a very high chance that you also have depression due to the similarities of both diseases.”

C.

“Antidepressants are prescribed prophylactically to prevent symptoms of depression.”

D.

“Escitalopram (Lexapro) is very effective with treating the panic attacks that can occur with anxiety.” (NURS6630 Final Exam (2018): Walden University)

1 points

QUESTION 74 ?

1.      The PMHNP evaluates the patient for “fear conditioning” when he asks:

A.

Have you ever experienced any type of trauma?

B.

What do you do when you feel fear?

C.

Does your mother or father have a history of fear and/or worrying?

D.

What makes your fear better?

1 points

QUESTION 75

1.      A patient diagnosed with PTSD is prescribed propranolol (Inderal) and the PMHNP understands that he was prescribed this medication for what purpose:

A.

He has uncontrolled high blood pressure and this must be treated before focusing on his PTSD.

B.

Beta blockers are linked to reconsolidation.

C.

This medication will allow the patient to sleep throughout the night.

D.

This medication is linked to the increase of serotonin in the brain.

See the link for Final Exam Only

https://www.homeworkmarket.com/questions/nurs6630-final-exam-2018-walden-university

See the link for Midterm Exam Only

https://www.homeworkmarket.com/questions/nurs-6630-midterm-exam-2018-walden-university-already-graded-a (NURS6630 Final Exam (2018): Walden University)

References

https://academics.waldenu.edu/catalog/courses/nurs/6630

 
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Week 5 Reflection – Answered

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Week 5 Reflection – Answered

In what ways could an understanding of systems theory and complexity science impact the role of the NP? Take a few minutes to reflect on the NP practice model that is most predominant in advanced practice environments you have observed. Are you satisfied with the demonstrated level of interprofessional collaboration? Briefly consider what appears to be the driving practice model for advanced practice nursing in your state. If your state lags behind in its practice model language, what might you do to facilitate change? (Week 5 Reflection – Answered)

Answer

The Impact of Systems Theory and Complexity Science on Nurse Practitioners (NPs)

Understanding Systems Theory and Complexity Science

Systems theory and complexity science offer valuable insights into how nurse practitioners (NPs) can enhance their practice. Systems theory emphasizes the interconnectedness of various components within a system, which in healthcare translates to recognizing how different elements—patients, healthcare providers, and administrative processes—interact and influence each other. Complexity science, on the other hand, focuses on how complex systems behave in unpredictable and non-linear ways. For NPs, applying these theories can lead to a more holistic approach to patient care, improved decision-making, and better adaptation to changes in the healthcare environment. By understanding that healthcare is a dynamic system with many interacting parts, NPs can better anticipate how changes in one area might affect others, leading to more effective interventions and strategies. (Week 5 Reflection – Answered)

NP Practice Models and Interprofessional Collaboration

In many advanced practice environments, the predominant NP practice model is collaborative, where NPs work closely with physicians, specialists, and other healthcare professionals. This model promotes shared decision-making and leverages the diverse expertise of the healthcare team to provide comprehensive patient care. However, the level of interprofessional collaboration can vary significantly. In some settings, collaboration is robust and well-integrated, while in others, it might be limited by organizational barriers or professional silos. Evaluating the effectiveness of these collaborations is crucial for identifying areas where improvements can be made. For instance, frequent team meetings, clear communication channels, and mutual respect among team members can enhance collaborative efforts and ensure that patient care is optimized. (Week 5 Reflection – Answered)

Driving Practice Models and State-Specific Considerations

The practice model for advanced practice nursing can differ widely from state to state. In states where NP practice is restricted by limited prescriptive authority or collaborative agreement requirements, there may be a need for advocacy and policy change. If your state lags behind in adopting more progressive practice models, several strategies can be employed to facilitate change. Engaging in legislative advocacy, participating in professional organizations, and educating policymakers about the benefits of expanded NP roles can help drive reform. Additionally, demonstrating the positive outcomes of advanced practice models through data and case studies can strengthen the case for policy adjustments. By leveraging systems theory and complexity science, NPs can better navigate the complexities of healthcare systems and advocate for changes that enhance their practice. Understanding and addressing the nuances of interprofessional collaboration and staying informed about state-specific practice models are essential for advancing the role of NPs and improving patient outcomes.

References

Phelan, S. E. (2001). What is complexity science, really?. Emergence, A Journal of Complexity Issues in Organizations and Management, 3(1), 120-136. https://www.tandfonline.com/doi/pdf/10.1207/S15327000EM0301_08

 
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